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CCNP SWITCHING FINAL – STUDY GUIDE

In its network design, a company lists this equipment :

Two Catalyst 4503 Layer 3 switches One 5500 security appliance firewall Two Catalyst 6509 switches Two lightweight access points Two Catalyst 2960 switches

Which two types of devices from the list would be appropriate to use at the access layer to provide end-user connectivity? (Choose two.) Catalyst 4503 switches Cisco 5500 security appliance firewall Catalyst 6509 switches lightweight access points Catalyst 2960 switches

What two traffic types must be included when calculating the bandwidth requirements to support a voice stream in an IP telephony network? (Choose two.) voice queues voice carrier stream voice services traffic call control signaling routing updates

What are three properties of peer-to-peer applications? (Choose three.) require dedicated bandwidth allocation can be used in video conference applications may require real-time interaction between peer devices can be used to fulfill the requirements for IP phone calls may require a direct physical connection between devices require centralized authentication

What are the responsibilities of devices that are located at the core layer of the hierarchical design model? (Choose two.) access list filtering packet manipulation high-speed backbone switching interconnection of distribution layer devices redundancy between the core devices only

A network designer must provide a rationale to a customer for a design that will move an enterprise from a flat network topology to a hierarchical network topology. Which two features of the hierarchical design make it the better choice? (Choose two.) reduced cost scalability less equipment required

higher availability lower bandwidth requirements

During an evaluation of the currently installed network, the IT staff performs a gap analysis to determine whether the existi ng network infrastructure can support certain new features. At which stage of the Cisco Lifecycle Services approach does this activity occur? prepare phase plan phase design phase implement phase operate phase optimize phase

Which phase of the Cisco Lifecycle Services strategy may prompt a network redesign if too many network problems and errors arise in the network? prepare plan design implement operate optimize

Which portion of the enterprise network provides access to network communication services for the end users and devices that are spread over a single geographic location? enterprise edge campus module WAN module Internet edge data center

Which family of Cisco switches is specifically designed for data centers? Catalyst 6500 Catalyst 2000 Nexus 7000 Catalyst 4500

What type of specialized memory is used to facilitate high performance switching in Cisco multilayer switches? content-addressable memory (CAM) ternary content addressable memory (TCAM) address resolution protocol (ARP) memory Cisco Express Forwarding (CEF) memory

Which Catalyst 6500 switch component integrates on individual line modules as well as on the supervisor engine?

CPU Flash ASIC NVRAM

Which technology consistently increases CPU load on multilayer Catalyst switches? quality of service (QoS) access control lists (ACLs) policy-based routing (PBR) network address translation (NAT)

Which family of Cisco switches supports Fibre Channel over Ethernet (FCoE)? Catalyst 4948G Catalyst 4500 Catalyst 6500 Nexus 5000

Which family of Cisco switches supports the greatest number of slots? Catalyst 4500 Catalyst 6500 Nexus 5000 Nexus 7000

Which two features are unavailable on a Layer 2 switch? (Choose two.) use of ASICs Internet Group Management Protocol (IGMP) snooping QoS marking Time to Live (TTL) decrementing rewrite of the source and destination MAC addresses

What is the purpose of the Cisco Enterprise Architecture? It replaces the three-layer hierarchical model with a flat network approach. It provides an enterprise-wide system network architecture that helps protect, optimize, and grow the network infrastructure that supports the business processes of a company. It provides services and functionality to the core layer by grouping various components into a single component that is located in the access layer. It reduces overall network traffic by grouping server farms, the management server, corporate intranet, and e-commerce routers in the same la

On what is Layer 3 switching fundamentally based? access control the ability to circumvent CPU processing software-based forwarding

Which option correctly describes the function of a switch that is configured in VTP transparent mode? option 1 option 2 option 3 option 4 option 5 Refer to the exhibit.Parallel eXpress Forwarding (PXF) A user needs to access a file server that is located in another department. How should SW2 be configured in order to participate in the same VTP domain and populate the VLAN infor mation across the domain? . Which layer of the Cisco Hierarchical Network Model will process the traffic first? access core distribution control Refer to the exhibit.

A server is only allowed to communicate with its default gateway and other related servers. Based on the show vtp status command outputs that are provided. Configure switch SW2 with the same VTP domain name that SW1 has . the users on VLAN10 who were connected to SW10 lost connectivity to the network. Switch SW2 should be configured for VTP version 1. Immedia tely afterward. Configure switch SW2 with the higher revision number. Configure switch SW2 with VTP version 1. During the network upgrade process. Switch SW2 should be configured with no VTP domain password. Switch SW2 should be configured as a VTP server with a higher revision number A network administrator is tasked with protecting a server farm by implementing private VLANs (PVLANs). a network administrator included switch SW2 in the network. what could be done to remedy the problem? Configure switch SW2 in VTP client mode. Which type of PVLAN should be configured on the switch ports that connect to the servers? isolated promiscuous secondary VLAN community Refer to the exhibit.Switch SW2 should be configured as a VTP client.

all users lost connectivity to the network. Switch SW2 was tested in a lab environment and later inserted into the production network. which causes pruning of all VLANs from the trunk port. Ports Fa3/1. Ports Fa3/1 and Fa3/2 on DSW1 will be defined as secondary VLAN community ports. Switch SW2 receives more VLANs from switch SW1 than can be supported. Which configuration will isolate the servers from inside attacks? Ports Fa3/1. Before a trunk link has been connected between the two switches SW1 and SW2. For security reasons. Fa3/34. Fa3/34. which causes deletion of the VLAN information in the VTP domain Refer to the exhibit. Fa3/2. Ports Fa3/34 and Fa3/35 will be defined as pr imary VLAN promiscuous ports. Switch SW2 has the pruning eligible parameter enabled. Fa3/2. The web servers WS_1 and WS_2 need to be accessed by external and internal users. and Fa3/35 on DSW1 will be defined as primary VLAN promiscuous ports. the servers do not have to communicate with each other although they are located on the same subnet. Ports Fa3/34 and Fa3/35 will be defined as primary VLAN promiscuous ports . What could be the possible reason for the problem? The switches can exchange VTP information only through an access link. a network administrator issued the show vtp status command as displayed in the exhibit. Ports Fa3/1 and Fa3/2 on DSW1 will be defined as secondary VLAN isolated ports.Refer to the exhibit. Switch SW2 has a higher VTP server revision number. and Fa3/35 on DSW1 will be defined as primary VLAN community ports. Both servers need to communicate with the data server that is locate d on the inside network. Immediately after the switches were interconnected.

1q encapsulation associated with it.) sets the switch port mode to access enables BPDU guard enables spanning tree PortFast enables root guard disables channel grouping enables BPDU filtering What are three characteristics of a VLAN access port? (Choose three. but for security purposes the web and the SMTP servers should not be reachable from the DNS servers.) off on desirable auto Which three effects does the interface command switchport host have when entered on a switch? (Choose three. An access port created with the switchport mode access command will send DTP frames by default. given that one end of the link is configured with PAgP mode desirable. What private VLAN design should be implemented? All servers should be configured in separate isolated VLANs. All community VLANs should be in the same primary VLAN. All isolated VLANs should be in the same primary VLAN. Both the community and isolated VLANs should be in the same primary VLAN When configuring an EtherChannel. The DNS1 and DNS2 servers should be configured in a community VLAN. The web and SMTP servers should be configured in an isolated VLAN.) A switch port can become an access port through static or dynamic configuration. An access port is associated with a single VLAN. All servers should be configured in separate community VLANs. The web server and the SMTP server need to communicate with the Internet. An access port should have the 802. The DNS1 and DNS2 servers should be configured in an isolated VLAN. An access port is created with the switchport mode access command and then associated with a VLAN with the switchport access vlan command. The DNS servers DNS1 and DNS2 are redundant copies so they need to communicate with each other and to the Internet. which PAgP modes can be configured on the opposite end of the link in order to form an active channel? (Choose two. The VLAN that the access port is assigned to will be automatically deleted if it does not exist in the VLAN database of the s witch . The web and SMTP servers should be configured in a community VLAN.Refer to the exhibit. Both the community and isolated VLANs should be part of the primary VLAN.

PC1 is connected to port Fa0/19. PC1 and PC2. which statement is true? Both workstations are on the same VLAN. PC2 is connected to a trunk port instead of an access port . and PC2 is connected to port Gi0/2. The VLAN interface is administratively shut down. Both workstations are in the default VLAN. that are connected to switch3548. Given the output of the show vlan command. Inter-VLAN routing is not properly configured. A network administrator is unable to ping between two workstations.Refer to the exhibit.

Switch1 and Switch2 are unable to establish an operational trunk connection. What is the problem betwee n the connection on Switch1 and Switch2? encapsulation mismatch switchport mode mismatch MTU mismatch VTP mismatch DTP mismatch native VLAN mismatch .Refer to the exhibit.

1Q trunking Refer to the exhibit. Given the exhibited command output. Which statement is true? Both switches will initiate channeling negotiation and will not be able to form a channel. Interface Fa0/1 is configured for 802. Interface Fa0/1 is configured as an SVI. Both SW1 and SW2 are configured with the PAgP desirable mode. Neither switch will initiate channeling negotiation but will form a channel between them . Both switches will initiate channeling negotiation and will form a channel between them. which statement is true? Interface Fa0/1 is configured for ISL trunking.Refer to the exhibit. Neither switch will initiate channeling negotiation and will not be able to form a channel between them. Interface Fa0/1 is configured as an access port.

Local VLANs should extend no further than the local distribution layer switch. Local VLANs provide a simple design that is easy to troubleshoot Which two statements are true about the 802. Given the configuration information of the CAT1 and CAT2 switches. Failures at Layer 2 are isolated to a small subset of users. Because the channel-group commands on SW2 should be set to "on. Layer 3 routing between VLANs can now be applied at the access layer. Because the port-channel numbers do not match. which statement is true? LACP will form a channel between the switches." LACP will not form a channel between the switches. LACP will form a 200-Mb/s channel between the switches Which two items are benefits of implementing local VLANs within the Enterprise Architecture? (Choose two.) A single VLAN can extend further than its associated distribution-layer switch.) Local VLANs should extend no further than the local core router.) .Refer to the exhibit. High availability is made possible because local VLAN traffic on access switches can now be passed directly to the core switc hes across an alternate Layer 3 path. Local VLANs eliminate the need for redundant access to distribution layer links. Local VLANs are limited to the access and distribution layer Which two statements describe Cisco best practices for VLAN design? (Choose two. LACP will not form a channel between the switc hes.1Q trunking protocol? (Choose two.

All switches default to one 802. Local VLANs should be created based upon the job function of the end user.1D BPDUs. Six VLANs were either manually configured on the switch or learned via VTP.1D spanning tree for all VLANs. Private VLAN configurations are not supported. Local VLANs do not extend beyond the building distribution layer. Interfaces Fa0/13 and Fa0/14 are in VLAN 1. What is the effect on the spanning-tree operation? Spanning tree is effectively disabled in the network. Local VLANs should be advertised to all switches in the network Refer to the exhibit.) Eleven VLANs were manually configured on the switch. but does not participate as a node in any spanning tree. The PVRST+ switch forwards 802. It is a proprietary protocol that is supported on Cisco switches only. Which two statements are true about the switch CAT2? (Choose two. which statement is true about best-practice design of local VLANs? Local VLAN is a feature that has only local significance to the switch. VLAN 100 is in dynamic desirable mode. Interfaces Fa0/13 and Fa0/14 are in an unspecified VLAN. VLAN 100 has no active access ports One switch in a Layer 2 switched spanning-tree domain is converted to PVRST+ using the spanning-tree mode rapid-pvst global configuration mode command. The remaining switches are running PVST+. The native VLAN interface configurations must match at both ends of the link or frames could be dropped In the context of the Enterprise Composite Architecture.Untagged frames will be placed in the configured native VLAN of a port. The PVSRT+ reverts to PVST+ to interoperate with the PVST+ switches .

IEEE 802.1D behavior is shown . Standard IEEE 802. What conclusion does the output support? PortFast is enabled on interface Fa0/6.1w is enabled on VLAN 1. The forward delay timer has been changed from the default value.w IEEE 802.Refer to the exhibit.1s PVRST+ Refer to the exhibit.1D IEEE 802. What implementation of spanning tree best describes the spanning-tree operational mode of the switch? IEEE 802.

Refer to the exhibit.) DLS1 is running IEEE 802. DLS1 is the root bridge for instance 1. DLS1 is running IEEE 802. What two conclusions does the output show to be true? (Choose two.1s on instance 1.1D on instance 1.) port costs on trunk ports configuration name revision number . After the sequence of commands is entered. how many VLANs will be assigned to the default instance? 4094 4064 4062 4061 Refer to the exhibit. Interfaces Fa0/1 through Fa0/6 are trunk ports Which three parameters should match all switches within an MST region? (Choose three. Interface Fa0/12 will move into the errdisable state if a BPDU is received.

Verify that the management VLAN is properly configured on all root bridges. Switch SW1 is receiving traffic from SW2. The port will transition to forwarding state automatically. However. The port will be disabled and the administrator must re-enable it manually. SW2 is not receiving traffic from SW1.) Confirm MAC port security is enabled on all access switches.trunk encapsulation method bridge priority VLAN-to-instance mappings Users complain that they lost connectivity to all resources in the network. The port will transition to the appropriate state as determined by the normal function of the spanning tree . Which STP feature should be implemented to prevent inadvertent loops in the network? UDLD PortFast BPDU guard BPDU filtering Which interfaces should loop guard be enabled on? root ports designated ports root port and alternate ports ports configured with PortFast root port and ports configured with PortFast What will happen when a BPDU is received on a loop guard port that is in a loop-inconsistent state? The port will transition to blocking state. Which two actions will determine the existence of the bridging loop? (Choose two. Capture the traffic on the saturated link and verify if duplicate packets are seen. Check the port utilization on devices and look for abnormal values. Ensure that the root guard and loop guard are properly configured on all distribution links Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator suspects the presence of a bridging loop as a root cause of the problem.

Refer to the exhibit. thereby creating a loop. STP is enabled on all switches in the network. Administratively disable ports that should be blocking and check to see if connectivity is restored. STP PortFast feature has been enabled on port 2/1. Adjust BPDU timers so that there is less overhead traffic on the switching fabric.) Switch B will become the root switch. PAgP has removed port 2/1 from the EtherChannel bundle. What are three problems that this scenario could create? (Choose three. the user on workstation A lost connectivity to the rest of the network. Autonegotiation results in both switch A and switch B failing to perform carrier sense. STP is configured on all switches in the network. Switch B may unblock its port to switch C. Check each side of a point-to-point link for duplex mismatch. At the same time. and switc h B is not. Spanning tree will keep re-calculating. Switch A is performing carrier sense and collision detection. Capture traffic on a saturated link and check whether identical frames are traversing multiple links Which statement is true about UDLD? It is automatically enabled. Administratively disable multicasting and check to see if connectivity is restored. The STP PortFast BPDU Guard feature has disabled port 2/1 on the switch What are three important steps in troubleshooting STP problems? (Choose three. . The port on switch B that connects to switch A is full duplex. The port on switch A that connects to switch B is half duplex. the administrator received the console message: %SPANTREE-2-RX_PORTFAST:Received BPDU on PortFast enable port. BPDUs may not successfully negotiate port states on the link between switch A and switch B. Recently.) Administratively create bridge loops and see what path the traffic takes. thereby consuming all the CPU normally used for traffic Refer to the exhibit.Disabling 2/1 What is the cause of the problem? STP PortFast feature has been disabled on port 2/1.

It will disable an EtherChannel bundle if one link has failed. RSTP elects a root bridge in exactly the same way as 802. The switch uses the max-age timer to age out entries in the MAC address table. and forwarding. UplinkFast and BackboneFast are compatible with RSTP Which protocol extends the IEEE 802. listening. the port transitions to the blocking state to pr event a root bridge election What happens when a switch running IEEE 802.1w Rapid Spanning Tree (RST) algorithm to multiple spanning trees? STP RSTP+ CST MST Which protocol should an administrator recommend to manage bridged links when the customer requires a fully redundant network that can utilize load balancing technologies and reconverge on link failures in less than a second? .) An RSTP BPDU carries information about port roles and is sent to neighbor switches only. Root guard re-enables a switch port once it stops receiving superior BPDUs. The switch uses the forward delay and the max-age timer to age out entries in the MAC address table Which STP timer defines the length of time spent in the listening and learning states? hello time forward aging forward delay max age max delay Which three statements about RSTP are true? (Choose three. Root guard should be configured on all ports on the desired root bridge to prevent another bridge from becoming the root.) Root guard is enabled on a per-port basis.1w standard. There are only three RSTP port states: discarding. It allows a switch to detect a unidirectional link and shut down the affected interface Which two statements are true about STP root guard? (Choose two. RSTP is recognized as the IEEE 802. The switch uses the hello to age out entries in the MAC address table.1D receives a topology change message from the root bridge? The switch uses the forward delay timer to age out entries in the MAC address table.1D. If a root guard enabled port receives a inferior BPDU from a nonroot switch.1w. RSTP is capable of reverting back to 802.It allows devices to transmit traffic one way.1D but still maintains the benefits of 802. Root guard requires that PortFast be enabled on a switch port.

21 IP address What is an advantage to using a trunk link to connect a switch to an external router that is providing inter-VLAN routing? works with any switch that supports VLANs and trunking lowers latency provides redundancy to the VLANs reduces CPU overhead .1D(STP) client sends a request for an IP address to a DHCP server. What information is included in the message? initial message to locate a DHCP server formal request for the offered IP address confirmation that the IP address has been allocated to the client denial message to reject the first offer from the DHCP server Refer to the exhibit.1.IEEE 802. which statement is true? The client sends a DHCPDISCOVER that contains IP address 10.10. The client accepts the offer from the DHCP server for the 10.1.21 to the DHCP server.21 to the DHCP server.10. and a lease for the IP address? DHCPDISCOVER DHCPOFFER DHCPREQUEST DHCPACK A DHCPREQUEST message has been sent from the client to the DHCP server. The client sends a DHCPREQUEST that contains IP address 10.1.10. Based on the debug ip dhcp server packet output.1s (MST) Cisco PVST+ IEEE 802.1Q (CST) IEEE 802. The client sends the BOOTREPLY broadcast message to inquire for a new IP address. Which DHCP message to the client will provide the configuration pa rameters that include an IP address. a domain name.

the routing table of the router will not show routes to either VLAN .10. Two static routes should be configured on the router. The router has been properly configured for the trunking interface. Because the switch port fa0/1 is in access mode. Which statement is true about the routing table on the router? It will show a next hop address of the switch for both VLANs.0/8. The Fa0/0 interface should be configured with a primary IP address of 10.0.1Q encapsulation Refer to the exhibit.10.11. It should contain routes to the 10.0/24 and the 10.Refer to the exhibit and the partial configuration taken on router RTA.0.1/24.10. each pointing to each subnet.10.10. It will show one trunking route to 10.5.10. the routing table of the router will not show any routes .1/24 and a secondary IP address of 10. Users on VLAN 5 cannot communicate with the users on VLAN 10.0/24 networks. The subinterfaces of the router should be configured with 802. Because the switch is not configured properly to trunk VLAN 1 and VLAN 2. What should be done to fix the problem? A dynamic routing protocol should be configured on the router.

A routed switch port is created by entering VLAN interface configuration mode and assigning an IP address. the router will not forward packets between workstations.) A routed switch port is a physical device that is associated with several VLANs. A routed switch port is created by configuring a Layer 2 port with the no switchport interface configuration command and assigning an IP address. A routed switch port provides an interface that may provide a Layer 3 connection to a next-hop router. An SVI is a physical switch port with Layer 3 capability.1 IP address of the router. The default gateway for hosts on VLAN 10 should be the Fa0/0 IP address of the router. .2 IP address of the router.Refer to the exhibit. A routed port is not associated with a particular VLAN. The default gateway for hosts on VLAN 10 should be the Fa0/0. Only one SVI can be associated with a VLAN. Because their packets are being trunked. To create an SVI requires removal of Layer 2 port functionality with the no switchport interface configuration command Which three statements about a routed switch interface are true? (Choose three. an SVI is created for the default VLAN (VLAN1). A routed port is a physical switch port with Layer 2 capability. hosts on VLAN 10 do not need a default gateway Which two statements are true about routed ports on a multilayer switch? (Choose two. To create a routed port requires removal of Layer 2 port functionality with the no switchport interface configuration command.) An SVI behaves like a regular router interface but does not support VLAN subinterfaces. A routed switch port is a virtual Layer 3 interface that can be configured for any VLAN that exists on a Layer 3 switch.) A routed port behaves like a regular router interface and supports VLAN subinterfaces. By default. Which statement is true regarding the diagram and show ip route command output? Because no routing protocol has been configured. The default gateway for hosts on VLAN 10 should be the Fa0/0. The interface vlan global configuration command is used to create a routed port Which two statements are true about switched virtual interfaces (SVI) on a multilayer switch? (Choose two.

The router replaces the unicast destination IP address of the DHCP request with the unicast IP address that is specified with the ip helper-address command A client computer is set up for DHCP and needs an IP configuration. The router replaces the source IP address of the DHCP request with the IP address that is specified with the ip helper-address command. which respo nse will enable the client to begin using the assigned address immediately? DHCPACK DHCPREQUEST DHCPOFFER DHCPDISCOVER .A routed switch port can serve as a default gateway for devices Refer to the exhibit and the partial configuration taken on routers RTA and RTB. each with ISL encapsulation. All users can ping their gateways. A trunk should be configured between routers RTA and RTB. but users on VLAN 5 and VLAN 10 cannot communicate with the users on VLAN 20.1Q encapsulation Which statement describes what occurs when a DHCP request is forwarded through a router that has been configured with the ip helper-address command? The router replaces the source MAC address included in the DHCP request with its own MAC address. During the DHCP client configuration process. The router replaces the broadcast destination IP address of the DHCP request with the unicast IP address that is specified wi th the ip helper-address command. RTA interface Fa0/1 and RTB Fa0/1 should be configured with three subinterfaces. each with 802. What should be done to solve the problem? A dynamic routing protocol or static routes should be configured on the routers. RTA interface Fa0/1 and RTB Fa0/1 should be configured with three subinterfaces.

10 command is required on interface Fa0/0.) An ARP entry for the destination next hop changes. The IP packets have an expiring TTL counter. The adjacency table eliminates the need for the ARP protocol. The routing table entry for a prefix changes Which condition will cause a packet to be process-switched instead of CEF switched? packets that are switched to an outgoing interface with an outbound ACL applied packets with a destination interface that is chosen by a routing protocol packets that need to be fragmented on the outgoing interface packets with a destination interface that is chosen by a static route packets that use TCP header options Which statement is true about the CEF forwarding process? The FIB table contains the Layer 2 rewrite information. The ip forward-protocol 37 global configuration command is required to forward DNS requests to IP address 10. After an IP prefix match is made.2.2. What additional configuration is required for host A to receive IP configuration from the DHCP server? The ip address dhcp command is required on interface Fa0/0. Adjacency table lookups use the closest Layer 3 prefix match.10.10. The ip dhcp information option command is required on interface Fa0/1.2. The TCAM table is flushed and reactivated. the process determines the associated Layer 2 header rewrite information from the adjacency table .1.Refer to the exhibit. The ip forward-protocol 69 global configuration command is required to forward TFTP requests to IP address 10. The routing table entry for the next hop changes. ages out.10 Which three events will cause the Forwarding Information Base (FIB) table to be updated? (Choose three. The FIB table is cleared with the clear fib adjacency * command. The ip forward-protocol 67 global configuration command is required to forward DHCP requests to IP address 10.1.2.1. The ip helper-address 10.1. or is removed.

2 Refer to the exhibit and the show ip cef output.10.10.0/24 is correct. What can be concluded from the output? The output validates that the CEF FIB entry for 10. The output shows that packets destined to 10. The cached adjacency address is 10.1.10.10.10. An administrator wants to ensure that CEF is functioning properly on the switches between hosts A and B.5. If the administrator wants to verify the CEF FIB table entry for the route 10.5.5.10.2 10.10.1 10. Layer 3.What is true about TCAM lookups that are associated with CEF switching? TCAM includes only Layer 3 lookup information.5.1 10.10. what should the adjacency IP address be? 10.10. A single TCAM lookup provides Layer 2.5.0/24 on Sw_MLSA.10.10. TCAM lookup tables are used only for the rapid processing of ACLs within CEF Refer to the exhibit.10.0/24 have not been processed by CEF .10. and ACL information TCAM lookup tables are used only for the Layer 3 forwarding operation. The next hop address is 10.1.

21.168.168.42. It tracks the state of the Serial0/0/0 interface on R1 and brings down the priority of standby group 1 if the interface goes down Refer to the exhibit. What statement is true about the output of the show standby command? The current priority of this router is 120.10 to the IP address 192.31. It links the default gateway virtual address 192.168.2 on interface Serial0/0/0. It tracks the state of the Fa0/0 interface on R1 and brings down the priority of standby group 1 if the interface goes down. The router is currently forwarding packets. This router is in the HSRP down state because its tracked interfaces are down .1 on interface Serial0/0/0.Refer to the exhibit. What action does the command standby 1 track Serial0/0/0 on router R1 perform? It links the default gateway virtual address 192.10 to the IP address 192.21. This router is tracking two properly operating interfaces.168.

. Router R1 is the master for Host1 and Host2. When host A sends an ARP message for the gateway IP address. Switch DSw1 assigns the virtual IP addresses to switch DSw2. switch DSw1 returns the physical MAC address of switch DSw2 Refer to the exhibit. The IP address of the real server is translated with Network Address Translation (NAT).) GLBP is a Cisco proprietary protocol and is supported on all Cisco Catalyst and Cisco router platforms. Router R1 is the master for Host3 and Host4. The IP address of the real server is advertised as part of a distinct network. which routers are the master and the backup virtual routers for the hosts that are connected to the VRRP group 1? Router R1 is the master for all hosts. none of the routers is the master for the VRRP group How does Cisco IOS server load balancing (SLB) enhance security of a real server? The IP address of the real server is not needed with IOS SLB. Based on this information. The IP address of the real server is never announced to the external network How is server IP addressing handled by Cisco IOS server load balancing (SLB) in dispatched mode? The default gateway address for the subnet is assigned to the virtual server. Two more multilayer switches could join this group. Based on the provided configuration. None of the switches have had their priority configured. which two GLBP statements are true? (Choose two. which relies only on MAC addresses. Switch DSw2 has been configured with the glbp 1 priority 95 command.Refer to the exhibit. and router R2 is the backup for all hosts in the group. Switch DSw1 is the active virtual gateway (AVG) and DSw2 is an active virtual forwarder (AVF). Because of incorrect configuration of the default gateway on the hosts. Router R2 is the master for Host3 and Host4. Router R2 is the backup for Host3 and Host4.

how many virtual servers are required? zero one two three four five Refer to the exhibit.) Globally enable IOS SLB. Add a trunk link to the switch to connect the real servers. The real servers are configured with IP addresses that differ by a power of 2 What three steps will configure Cisco IOS server load balancing (SLB) in a server farm that is in a data center with real servers? (Choose three. Define the server farm. Associate the real server with the server farm. Based on the output.The real servers are configured with the virtual server address as loopback addresses or secondary IP addresses. What is the effect of the serverfarm RESTRICTED command? associates the primary serverfarm RESTRICTED_HTTP to the virtual server RESTRICTED enables the virtual server RESTRICTED_HTTP associates the primary serverfarm RESTRICTED to the virtual server RESTRICTED_HTTP enables the virtual server RESTRICTED . The virtual server is assigned an IP address unknown to any of the real servers. Define the virtual IP address. Enable the real server and define it to be used for the server farm Refer to the exhibit.

with NA-1.1.1.168. changed state to up Refer to the exhibit.1 %LINK-3-UPDOWN: Interface FastEthernet0/3.1.1 %CDP-4-DUPLEX_MISMATCH: duplex mismatch discovered on FastEthernet0/3 (not half duplex). changed state to down Mar 17 06:43:02: 10.1.1.1 %SYS-6-BOOTTIME: Time taken to reboot after reload = 551932 seconds Mar 17 06:42:20: 10. From the syslog output. The logging severity level is set to 3.1 %LINEPROTO-5-UPDOWN: Line protocol on Interface FastEthernet0/3.5) Mar 17 06:42:21: 10.1. Which feature does a SNMP manager need in order to set a parameter on switch ACSW1? a manager using an SNMP string of K44p0ut a manager using host 172. 2. The time stamp is set for uptime. changed state to down Mar 17 06:42:22: 10.16.1.1 %LINEPROTO-5-UPDOWN: Line protocol on Interface FastEthernet0/3.foo.1.1.1.254. what option is set on the switch sending the messages? The sequence number is set.30.1 %SYS-5-CONFIG_I: Configured from console by mwmwm on vty0 (192. Mar 17 06:42:22: 10.1.128.1.50 a manager using SNMPv1.defines the virtual server RESTRICTED defines the virtual server RESTRICTED_HTTP Which syslog entry has a severity code that indicates the most serious situation? Mar 17 06:03:21: 10. The logging facility number is set to sys12 What SNMP attribute provides the best security? authNoPriv authPriv community string noAuthNoPriv SNMPv2 Refer to the exhibit.com FastEthernet0/24 (half duplex). or 2c a manager using authPriv .

Which statement is correct about the network? A Layer 3 link should be installed between the two distribution switches to avoid unexpected traffic paths and multiple convergence events. The HSRP active router for VLAN 55 and VLAN 60 should be the same switch. The uplink between the access switches and the distribution switches should be trunk links What is the main purpose of implementing Cisco NSF? to continue forwarding IP packets following an RP switchover to forward all STP updates to all switches in the network. A Layer 2 access port should be placed between the access switches. A Layer 2 access link is required between the two access switches to ensure optimal redundancy.Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about best practice and the exhibited network design? The Layer 2 VLAN number should be mapped to the Layer 3 subnet for ease of use and management. The root bridge and HSRP active router should be two different devices. to keep a backup copy of the latest MAC table in the event of RAM failure. A third distribution switch should be installed to create redundancy in the event the root bridge fails Refer to the exhibit. what two events can trigger a switchover from the active to the standby Supervisor Engine? (Choose two.) clock synchronization failure between the Supervisor Engines loss of packets from the root bridge an RP or SP crash on the active Supervisor Engine frames received on a port that is in blocking mode port failure . to move switch ports that are currently in blocking mode to forwarding mode with minimal packet loss When using RPR.

IP SLA operation 100 has been incorrectly configured. Port channel interfaces (EtherChannel) can be configured as source and destination ports for a single SPAN session .Refer to the exhibit. IP SLA operation 100 has stopped monitoring the target device. Both Layer 2 and Layer 3 switched ports can be configured as source or destination ports for a single SPAN session. IP SLA operation 99 has stopped monitoring the target device. The router in the standby state is a candidate to become the next active router. Access switches should have a backup connection to at least one core device Dual distribution switches should connect individually to separate core switches. IP SLA operation 99 had 211 successful replies from the target device.) A router in the speak state sends periodic hello messages to all routers in the group to acquire a virtual IP address. as necessary Which statement is true about a local SPAN configuration? A port can act as the destination port for all SPAN sessions configured on the switch. IP SLA operation 100 had 211 successful replies from the target device Which two statements are true about the Hot Standby Router Protocol (HSRP)? (Choose two. A router in the standby state forwards packets that are sent to the group virtual MAC address. What is considered a best practice for an optimal redundant network? Access switches should have redundant connections to redundant distribution switches. A router in the speak state sends periodic hello messages and actively participates in the election of the active or standby router. The router that is not the standby or active router will remain in the speak state. Which IP SLA statement is true? IP SLA operation 99 has been incorrectly configured. Three distribution switches should be implemented so that the third switch can take the role of active or standby. A port can be configured to act as a source and destination port for a single SPAN session.

Refer to the exhibit. Issue the ip dhcp snooping trust command on all interfaces on SW1. Which statement is true about the local SPAN configuration on switch SW1? The SPAN session transmits to a device on port Fa3/21 a copy of all traffic that is monitored on port Fa3/1. Issue the ip dhcp snooping trust command on all interfaces on SW2 and SW3. and SW3 except interface Fa0/1 on SW1 . An attacker. connected to one of the ports. but only if port Fa3/1 is configured as trunk. The switch has a restriction on the number of capture ports. The SPAN session transmits to a device on port Fa3/21 a copy of all traffic that is monitored on port Fa3/1. The SPAN session transmits to a device on port Fa3/21 only a copy of unicast traffic that is monitored on port Fa3/1. SW2 and SW3. sends a malicious DTP frame. Issue the ip dhcp snooping trust command on all interfaces on SW1. SW2. On all switches. The capture port needs to be in the spanning-tree forwarding state for the VLAN All access ports on a switch are configured with the administrative mode of dynamic auto. What additional step should be taken to configure the security required on the network? Issue the ip dhcp snooping trust command on all uplink interfaces on SW1. Which statement is true about the VSPAN configuration on switch SW1? The VSPAN session that is configured on port Fa3/4 can monitor only the ingress traffic for any of the VLANs. The capture port captures all packets that are received on the port. A network engineer is securing a network against DHCP spoofing attacks. and SW3. What is the intent of the attacker? VLAN hopping DHCP spoofing attack MAC flooding attack ARP poisoning attack Refer to the exhibit. All multicast and BPDU frames will be excluded from the monitoring process Refer to the exhibit. The VSPAN session transmits a copy of the ingress traffic for VLAN 10 and the egress traffic for VLAN 20 out interface Fa3/4 Which configuration guideline applies to using the capture option in VACL? Capture ports transmit traffic that belongs to all VLANs. the engineer applied the ip dhcp snooping command and enabled DHCP snooping on all VLANs with the ip dhcp snooping vlan command. SW2. The VSPAN session that is configured on port Fa3/4 can monitor only the egress traffic for any of the VLANs. The SPAN session transmits to a device on port Fa3/21 a copy of all traffic that is monitored on port Fa3/1. Port Fa3/4 must be associated with VLAN 10 or VLAN 20 in order to monitor the traffic for any of the VLANs. but only if port Fa3/1 is configured in VLAN 10.

) .10.10.10.10. what is the end result? forces all hosts that are attached to a port to authenticate before being allowed access to the network disables 802. and the local database as the final method? SW-1(config)# aaa new-model SW-1(config)# radius-server host 10. Configure them as trunk ports for the native VLAN 1.12 key secret SW-1(config)# aaa authentication login default group-radius enable local none Refer to the exhibit. Configure them as access ports and associate them with an unused VLAN Refer to the exhibit.12 key secret SW-1(config)# aaa authentication default group-radius local SW-1(config)# aaa new-model SW-1(config)# radius-server host 10.12 key secret SW-1(config)# aaa authentication login default group radius enable local none SW-1(config)# aaa new-model SW-1(config)# radius server host 10. which three statements are correct? (Choose three.10. Given the configuration on the ALSwitch.1x authentication on the port globally disables 802.1x authentication Refer to the exhibit. Given the information in the exhibit.Which countermeasure can be implemented to determine the validity of an ARP packet.12 key secret SW-1(config)# aaa authentication login default group radius enable local SW-1(config)# aaa new-model SW-1(config)# radius server host 10.10.12 key secret SW-1(config)# aaa authentication default group-radius enable local SW-1(config)# aaa new-model SW-1(config)# radius-server host 10. Network policy dictates that security functions should be administered using AAA.10.1x port-based authentication and causes the port to allow normal traffic without authenticating the client enables 802.10.10. Configure them with the PAgP protocol. based on the valid MAC-address-to-IP address bindings stored in a DHCP snooping database? DHCP spoofing dynamic ARP inspection CAM table inspection MAC snooping How should unused ports on a switch be configured in order to prevent VLAN hopping attacks? Configure them with the UDLD feature.10. Which configuration would create a default login authentication list that uses RADIUS as the first authentication method. the enable password as the second method. A switch is being configured to support AAA authentication on the console connection.

Configure MAC address VLAN access maps. Remove the switchport command from the interface configuration . the enable password as the fourth method. What should be done to correct the issue? Add the switchport port-security mac-address sticky command to the interface configuration. the local username database as the third method. The none keyword enables any user logging in to successfully authenticate if all other methods return an error. Enable root guard. The login authentication admin line console command is required. and none as the last method.The authentication login admin line console command is required. The configuration creates an authentication list that uses a named access list called group as the first authentication method. Change the port speed to speed auto with the interface configuration mode. Implement private VLANs. and none as the last method. Configure MAC address VLAN access maps What is one way to mitigate ARP spoofing? Enable dynamic ARP inspection.) to initiate a man-in-the-middle attack to initiate a denial of service (DoS) attack to capture data from the network to gather network topology information to exhaust the address space available to the DHCP Refer to the exhibit. Place all unused ports into a common VLAN (not VLAN 1). Use the switchport mode trunk command in the interface configuration. the local username database as the second method. the enable password as the third method. After the configuration has been applied to ACSw22. frames that are bound for the node on port FastEthe rnet 0/1 are periodically being dropped. The configuration creates an authentication list that uses a TACACS+ server as the first authentication method. Implement private VLANs What are two purposes for an attacker launching a MAC table flood? (Choose two. The none keyword specifies that a user cannot log in if all other methods have failed What is one way to mitigate spanning-tree compromises? Statically configure the primary and backup root bridge. a TACACS+ server as the second method.

or 4 information. 3. VLAN ACLs can be used to capture traffic on a spanning-tree blocked port. What is the state of the monitoring session? This is a remote monitored session. SPAN session number 2 is being used. The session is only monitoring data sent out Fa0/1 What is the function of the 6500 Network Analysis Module? monitors traffic on ingress ports sends TCP resets to an attacker TCP session gathers multilayer information from data flows that pass through the switch provides remote monitoring of multiple switches across a switched network What technology can be used to help mitigate MAC address flooding attacks? root guard Private VLANs DHCP snooping VLAN access maps Dynamic ARP Inspection What advantage for monitoring traffic flows does using VACLs with the capture option offer over using SPAN? VLAN ACLs can be used to capture denied traffic.Refer to the exhibit. No data is being sent from the session. VLAN ACLs can be used to capture traffic to the CPU separate from the traffic that is hardware switched . VLAN ACLs can be used to capture traffic based on Layer 2.

0.1.1 as the rendezvous point for all multicast groups enables protocol independent multicast (PIM) with router ID 10.1.1.40 The bootstrap router (BSR) mechanism of automating the distribution of rendezvous point (RP) information uses which IP address to disseminate information to all protocol independent multicast (PIM) routers? 224.1 assigns the role of rendezvous point mapping agent to the router with IP address 10.1.1.1? enables IP multicast routing with router ID 10.39 224.13 224.13 224.1.0.1. The routers sends group-to-RP mapping messages to 224.IGMP snooping is enabled globally by default For configuring IP multicast routing.1.0.13 .1.0.39 so that other routers can automatically discover the RP.1.1 224.0. The router sends group-to-RP mapping messages to 224. Enable multicast routing in global configuration mode.1.1.1.1.1.0.1 announces the candidacy of the router with IP address 10.1.0. what is the purpose of the global configuration mode command ip pim send-rp-announce 10.What Cisco tool can be used to monitor events happening in the switch? Embedded Event Manager Intrusion Prevention System Network Analysis module Switched Port Analyzer Which configuration-related step is required for IGMP snooping on a Catalyst switch? Enable IGMP snooping in global configuration mode. Configure the IGMP snooping method. None .1 What is the result of the global configuration command ip pim send-rp-discovery Loopback0 scope 3? The router sends broadcast group-to-RP mapping messages so that other routers can automatically discover the RP.13 224.39 address What is the IP address for the Cisco-RP-announce multicast group? 224.1.40 224.1.0.1.40 so that other routers can automatically discover the RP.0.0. The router advertises itself as the RP by sending messages to the 224.0.0.1.

The routers between the Source and the rendezvous point (RP) have (S.1.1.G) state in their multicast routing tables.1. After the first multicast packet is received by the Receivers and the switchover takes place. PIM should be configured on the device that hosts the source of the muticast traffic.Refer to the exhibit. The network has EIGRP configured on all routers and has converged on the routes advertised. The traffic will flow via shared tree from the Source to the RP and via source tree from the RP to the Receivers. How will the multicast traffic that is sent from the multicast server SRC through the R1-R3-R5 path be handled at router R6? The multicast traffic will be dropped. The multicast traffic will be sent to switch SW1.1.1. PIM Sparse Mode is most useful when there are few senders. The multicast traffic will be forwarded to all users in the multicast group 224. PIM sparse mode has been also configured on a ll routers. and the volume of multicast traffic is high. PIM is a multicast routing protocol that makes packet-forwarding decisions independent of the unicast IP routing protocol that is running in the network. The multicast traffic will be sent back to the rendezvous point (RP) through the R4-R2-R1 path Refer to the exhibit. PIM Sparse Mode (PIM-SM). and PIM Sparse-Dense Mode .G) state in the multicast routing table and the routers between the RP and the Receivers have (*. The traffic will flow via shared tree from the Source to the RP and via shared tree from the RP to the Receivers. Router R6 has sent a join message to router R4 requesting multicast traffic for users in the multicast group 224. The traffic will flow via source tree from the Source to the RP and via shared tree from the RP to the Receivers Which two statements about Protocol Independent Multicast (PIM) are true? (Choose two. many receivers.1. Three of the forwarding modes for PIM are PIM Dense Mode (PIM-DM). PIM should be configured only on the first and the last hop routers in the multicast tree. how will the multicast traffic continue to flow from the Source to the Receivers? The traffic will flow via source tree from the Source to the Receivers.) PIM does not require an IGP protocol to be configured in the network. which will drop the traffic.

255.Which MAC multicast address correctly maps to the IP multicast address 224.5E. IP addresses between 224. .5E.0. IP address 224. the routers have the SPT threshold set to 0 by default which guarantees that the last-hop router switches to SPT mode as soon as the host starts receiving the multicast What are two reasons to implement wireless in a network? (Choose two.255.1 is a globally scoped address that has been reserved for the Network Time Protocol (NTP).0 through 254.0A.0.255.255 can be assigned to the sources of multicast traffic.1.0.5E.00. WLANs do not use MAC addresses. WLANs use CSMA/CD rather than CSMA/CA because WLANs operate at full-duplex Which statement is true about the split MAC architecture? It distributes the processing of 802. All IP multicast group addresses fall in the range from 224.0.0.10.32.5 identifies the all-routers group.0 and 233.1 and 239.) increased security increased mobility increased productivity increased cost savings increased throughput What is true about the differences between wireless LANs (WLANs) and LANs? A VPN connection that uses IPsec is not possible with WLANs.255. In a PIM-SM network.50.10.255.0.) IP address 224. Which three statements are true about Protocol Independent Multicast (PIM) implementation on Cisco routers? (Choose three. IP addresses between 233. a multicast sender first registers with the RP. In PIM-SM deployment.0.40) multicast group. WLANs use CSMA/CA rather than CSMA/CD because WLANs operate at half-duplex.0.0A.11 data and management protocols between a lightweight access point and a centralized WLAN controller.0.50. and the data stream begins to flow from sender to RP to receiver.10.255.255.00.50.G) entries for the multicast groups.4? 01.1.04 01. WLANs use CSMA/CD rather than CSMA/CA because wireless LANs operate on multiple frequencies.255 are reserved link-local addresses.04 01.) Bidir-PIM is suited for multicast with larger numbers of sources.5E. all routers create only (*. WLANs use CSMA/CA rather than CSMA/CD because WLANs cannot detect collisions.00.00.04 Which two statements about IP multicast addresses are true? (Choose two. In PIM-DM. Available network bandwidth is overutilized outside of the multicast routing zone because multiple streams of data are required between distant routers in place of a single transmission.0. All routers in the PIM network learn about the active group-to-RP mapping from the RP mapping agent by automatically joining the Cisco-RP-discovery (224.32. GLOP addresses and limited scope addresses are two types of IP multicast addresses.04 01.

Traffic shaping controls the rate traffic flows through a switch whereas policing controls traffic flows through a router.) cost savings increased productivity stronger security increased data throughput easier administration What method of QoS gives preferential handling for predefined classes of traffic? best-effort services differentiated services hard QoS services integrated services What is a major difference between traffic shaping and policing? Traffic shaping buffers excessive traffic to smooth traffic whereas policing drops excessive traffic. and address translation provides real-time connectivity for participants in multiple locations to attend the same video conference or meeting provides call control for IP phones. Remove all QoS policies that are applied in the network. Utilize Power over Ethernet. Traffic shaping marks traffic with Layer 2 class of service (CoS) whereas policing marks traffic with the ToS bits in the IP header Where should QoS classification and marking be done? access layer at the first router interface core layer distribution layer What is the function of a gateway within a VoIP network? provides translation between VoIP and non-VoIP networks provides connection admission control (CAC). and address translation What are two best practices when implementing voice in a network? (Choose two. . What are two reasons to implement voice in a network? (Choose two. bandwidth control and management. The conversation flow can be split between multiple routers. bandwidth control and management.Multiple devices can be grouped together to combine total bandwidth.) Create a separate VLAN for voice traffic. CAC. The conversation flow can be split between multiple switches. Traffic shaping is preferred for traffic flows such as voice and video whereas policing is better for TCP flows. Minimize the volume of the data traffic.

Implement access control lists at the distribution layer .