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Vendor: Cisco

Exam Code: 300-115

Exam Name: Implementing Cisco IP Switched Networks
(SWITCH v2.0)

Version: 17.041
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QUESTION 1
An EtherChannel bundle has been established between a Cisco switch and a corporate web
server. The network administrator noticed that only one of the EtherChannel links is being utilized
to reach the web server. What should be done on the Cisco switch to allow for better
EtherChannel utilization to the corporate web server?

A. Enable Cisco Express Forwarding to allow for more effective traffic sharing over the
EtherChannel bundle.
B. Adjust the EtherChannel load-balancing method based on destination IP addresses.
C. Disable spanning tree on all interfaces that are participating in the EtherChannel bundle.
D. Use link-state tracking to allow for improved load balancing of traffic upon link failure to the
server.
E. Adjust the EtherChannel load-balancing method based on source IP addresses.

Answer: E
Explanation:
EtherChannel load balancing can use MAC addresses, IP addresses, or Layer 4 port numbers,
and either source mode, destination mode, or both. The mode you select applies to all
EtherChannels that you configure on the switch. Use the option that provides the greatest variety
in your configuration.
For example, if the traffic on a channel only goes to a single MAC address (which is the case in
this example, since all traffic is going to the same web server), use of the destination MAC
address results in the choice of the same link in the channel each time. Use of source addresses
or IP addresses can result in a better load balance.
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/lan-switching/ etherchannel/12023-4.html

QUESTION 2
Interface FastEthernet0/1 is configured as a trunk interface that allows all VLANs.
This command is configured globally:

monitor session 2 filter vlan 1 - 8, 39, 52

What is the result of the implemented command?

A. All VLAN traffic is sent to the SPAN destination interface.
B. Traffic from VLAN 4 is not sent to the SPAN destination interface.
C. Filtering a trunked SPAN port effectively disables SPAN operations for all VLANs.
D. The trunk's native VLAN must be changed to something other than VLAN 1.
E. Traffic from VLANs 1 to 8, 39, and 52 is replicated to the SPAN destination port.

Answer: E
Explanation:
The "monitor session filter" command is used to specify which VLANS are to be port mirrored
using SPAN.
This example shows how to monitor VLANs 1 through 5 and VLAN 9 when the SPAN source is a
trunk interface:
Switch(config)# monitor session 2 filter vlan 1 - 5 , 9
http://www.cisco.com/ c/en/us/td/docs/switches/lan/catalyst4500/12-
2/25ew/configuration/guide/conf/span.html/ index.html#wp1066836

QUESTION 3
A network engineer notices inconsistent Cisco Discovery Protocol neighbors according to the

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diagram that is provided. The engineer notices only a single neighbor that uses Cisco Discovery
Protocol, but it has several routing neighbor relationships. What would cause the output to show
only the single neighbor?

A. The routers are connected via a Layer 2 switch.
B. IP routing is disabled on neighboring devices.
C. Cisco Express Forwarding is enabled locally.
D. Cisco Discovery Protocol advertisements are inconsistent between the local and remote devices.

Answer: A
Explanation:
If all of the routers are connected to each other using a layer 2 switch, then each router will only
have the single switch port that it connects to as its neighbor. Even though multiple routing
neighbors can be formed over a layer 2 network, only the physical port that it connects to will be
seen as a CDP neighbor. CDP can be used to determine the physical topology, but not
necessarily the logical topology.

QUESTION 4
After the implementation of several different types of switches from different vendors, a network
engineer notices that directly connected devices that use Cisco Discovery Protocol are not
visible. Which vendor-neutral protocol could be used to resolve this issue?

A. Local Area Mobility
B. Link Layer Discovery Protocol
C. NetFlow
D. Directed Response Protocol

Answer: B
Explanation:
The Link Layer Discovery Protocol (LLDP) is a vendor-neutral link layer protocol in the Internet
Protocol Suite used by network devices for advertising their identity, capabilities, and neighbors
on an IEEE 802 local area network, principally wired Ethernet. LLDP performs functions similar to
several proprietary protocols, such as the Cisco Discovery Protocol (CDP).
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/ Link_Layer_Discovery_Protocol

QUESTION 5
Several new switches have been added to the existing network as VTP clients. All of the new
switches have been configured with the same VTP domain, password, and version. However,
VLANs are not passing from the VTP server (existing network) to the VTP clients. What must be
done to fix this?

A. Remove the VTP domain name from all switches with "null" and then replace it with the new
domain name.
B. Configure a different native VLAN on all new switches that are configured as VTP clients.
C. Provision one of the new switches to be the VTP server and duplicate information from the
existing network.
D. Ensure that all switch interconnects are configured as trunks to allow VTP information to be
transferred.

Answer: D
Explanation:

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VTP allows switches to advertise VLAN information between other members of the same VTP
domain.
VTP allows a consistent view of the switched network across all switches. There are several
reasons why the VLAN information can fail to be exchanged. Verify these items if switches that
run VTP fail to exchange VLAN information:
VTP information only passes through a trunk port. Make sure that all ports that interconnect
switches are configured as trunks and are actually trunking. Make sure that if EtherChannels are
created between two switches, only Layer 2 EtherChannels propagate VLAN information.
Make sure that the VLANs are active in all the devices.
One of the switches must be the VTP server in a VTP domain. All VLAN changes must be done
on this switch in order to have them propagated to the VTP clients.
The VTP domain name must match and it is case sensitive. CISCO and cisco are two different
domain names.
Make sure that no password is set between the server and client. If any password is set, make
sure that the password is the same on both sides.
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk389/tk689/technologies_tech_note09186a0080890613.shtml

QUESTION 6
After implementing VTP, the extended VLANs are not being propagated to other VTP switches.
What should be configured for extended VLANs?

A. VTP does not support extended VLANs and should be manually added to all switches.
B. Enable VTP version 3, which supports extended VLAN propagation.
C. VTP authentication is required when using extended VLANs because of their ability to cause
network instability.
D. Ensure that all switches run the same Cisco IOS version. Extended VLANs will not propagate to
different IOS versions when extended VLANs are in use.

Answer: B
Explanation:
VTP version 1 and VTP version 2 do not propagate configuration information for extended- range
VLANs (VLAN numbers 1006 to 4094). You must configure extended-range VLANs manually on
each network device.
VTP version 3 supports extended-range VLANs (VLAN numbers 1006 to 4094).
If you convert from VTP version 3 to VTP version 2, the VLANs in the range 1006 to 4094 are
removed from VTP control.

QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit. Switch A, B, and C are trunked together and have been properly configured
for VTP. Switch C receives VLAN information from the VTP server Switch A, but Switch B does
not receive any VLAN information. What is the most probable cause of this behavior?

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A. Switch B is configured in transparent mode.
B. Switch B is configured with an access port to Switch A, while Switch C is configured with a trunk
port to Switch B.
C. The VTP revision number of the Switch B is higher than that of Switch A.
D. The trunk between Switch A and Switch B is misconfigured.

Answer: A
Explanation:
VTP transparent switches do not participate in VTP. A VTP transparent switch does not advertise
its VLAN configuration and does not synchronize its VLAN configuration based on received
advertisements, but transparent switches do forward VTP advertisements that they receive out
their trunk ports in VTP Version 2.

QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit. Switch A, B, and C are trunked together and have been properly configured
for VTP. Switch B has all VLANs, but Switch C is not receiving traffic from certain VLANs. What
would cause this issue?

A. A VTP authentication mismatch occurred between Switch A and Switch
B. B. The VTP revision number of Switch B is higher than that of Switch A.
C. VTP pruning is configured globally on all switches and it removed VLANs from the trunk interface
that is connected to Switch C.
D. The trunk between Switch A and Switch B is misconfigured.

Answer: C
Explanation:
VTP pruning increases network available bandwidth by restricting flooded traffic to those trunk
links that the traffic must use to reach the destination devices.
Without VTP pruning, a switch floods broadcast, multicast, and unknown unicast traffic across all
trunk links within a VTP domain even though receiving switches might discard them. VTP pruning
is disabled by default. VTP pruning blocks unneeded flooded traffic to VLANs on trunk ports that
are included in the pruning-eligible list. The best explanation for why switch C is not seeing traffic
from only some of the VLANs, is that VTP pruning has been configured.

QUESTION 9
After the recent upgrade of the switching infrastructure, the network engineer notices that the port
roles that were once "blocking" are now defined as "alternate" and "backup." What is the reason
for this change?

A. The new switches are using RSTP instead of legacy IEEE 802.1D STP.
B. IEEE 802.1D STP and PortFast have been configured by default on all newly implemented Cisco

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Catalyst switches.
C. The administrator has defined the switch as the root in the STP domain.
D. The port roles have been adjusted based on the interface bandwidth and timers of the new Cisco
Catalyst switches.

Answer: A
Explanation:
RSTP works by adding an alternative port and a backup port compared to STP.
These ports are allowed to immediately enter the forwarding state rather than passively wait for
the network to converge.
RSTP bridge port roles:
Root port A forwarding port that is the closest to the root bridge in terms of path cost
Designated port A forwarding port for every LAN segment Alternate port A best alternate path to
the root bridge.
This path is different than using the root port.
The alternative port moves to the forwarding state if there is a failure on the designated port for
the segment.
Backup port A backup/redundant path to a segment where another bridge port already connects.
The backup port applies only when a single switch has two links to the same segment (collision
domain).
To have two links to the same collision domain, the switch must be attached to a hub.
Disabled port Not strictly part of STP, a network administrator can manually disable a port.

QUESTION 10
An administrator recently configured all ports for rapid transition using PortFast. After testing, it
has been determined that several ports are not transitioning as they should. What is the reason
for this?

A. RSTP has been enabled per interface and not globally.
B. The STP root bridge selection is forcing key ports to remain in non-rapid transitioning mode.
C. STP is unable to achieve rapid transition for trunk links.
D. The switch does not have the processing power to ensure rapid transition for all ports.

Answer: C
Explanation:
RSTP can only achieve rapid transition to the forwarding state on edge ports and on point-to-
point links, not on trunk links. The link type is automatically derived from the duplex mode of a
port. A port that operates in full-duplex is assumed to be point-to-point, while a half-duplex port is
considered as a shared port by default.
This automatic link type setting can be overridden by explicit configuration. In switched networks
today, most links operate in full-duplex mode and are treated as point-to-point links by RSTP.
This makes them candidates for rapid transition to the forwarding state.

QUESTION 11
Which technique automatically limits VLAN traffic to only the switches that require it?

A. access lists
B. DTP in nonegotiate
C. VTP pruning
D. PBR

Answer: C

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Explanation:
VTP pruning enhances network bandwidth use by reducing unnecessary flooded traffic, such as
broadcast, multicast, unknown, and flooded unicast packets to only the switches that require it.
VTP pruning increases available bandwidth by restricting flooded traffic to those trunk links that
the traffic must use to access the appropriate network devices. By default, VTP pruning is
disabled.

QUESTION 12
What effect does the mac address-table aging-time 180 command have on the MAC address-
table?

A. This is how long a dynamic MAC address will remain in the CAM table.
B. The MAC address-table will be flushed every 3 minutes.
C. The default timeout period will be 360 seconds.
D. ARP requests will be processed less frequently by the switch.
E. The MAC address-table will hold addresses 180 seconds longer than the default of 10 minutes.

Answer: A
Explanation:
You can configure the amount of time that an entry (the packet source MAC address and port that
packet ingresses) remain in the MAC table. To configure the aging time for all MAC addresses,
perform this task:
Command Purpose
Step 1
switch# configure
Enters configuration mode.
terminal
Step 2
switch(config)# mac-Specifies the time before an entry ages out address-table aging- and is
discarded from the MAC address table. time seconds [vlan The range is from 0 to 1000000; the
default is vlan_id] 300 seconds.
Entering the value 0 disables the MAC aging. If a VLAN is not specified, the aging specification
applies to all VLANs. This example shows how to set the aging time for entries in the MAC
address table to 600 seconds (10 minutes):
switch# configure terminal
switch(config)# mac-address-table aging-time 600

QUESTION 13
While working in the core network building, a technician accidently bumps the fiber connection
between two core switches and damages one of the pairs of fiber. As designed, the link was
placed into a non-forwarding state due to a fault with UDLD. After the damaged cable was
replaced, the link did not recover. What solution allows the network switch to automatically
recover from such an issue?

A. macros
B. errdisable autorecovery
C. IP Event Dampening
D. command aliases
E. Bidirectional Forwarding Detection

Answer: B
Explanation:

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There are a number of events which can disable a link on a Catalyst switch, such as the detection
of a loopback, UDLD failure, or a broadcast storm. By default, manual intervention by an
administrator is necessary to restore the interface to working order; this can be done by issuing
shutdown followed by no shutdown on the interface. The idea behind requiring administrative
action is so that a human engineer can intercede, assess, and (ideally) correct the issue.
However, some configurations may be prone to accidental violations, and a steady recurrence of
these can amount to a huge time sink for the administrative staff.
This is where errdisable autorecovery can be of great assistance. We can configure the switch to
automatically re-enable any error-disabled interfaces after a specified timeout period. This gives
the offending issue a chance to be cleared by the user (for example, by removing an unapproved
device) without the need for administrative intervention.

QUESTION 14
A network engineer deployed a switch that operates the LAN base feature set and decides to use
the SDM VLAN template. The SDM template is causing the CPU of the switch to spike during
peak working hours. What is the root cause of this issue?

A. The VLAN receives additional frames from neighboring switches.
B. The SDM VLAN template causes the MAC address-table to overflow.
C. The VLAN template disables routing in hardware.
D. The switch needs to be rebooted before the SDM template takes effect.

Answer: C
Explanation:
SDM Template Notes:
All templates are predefined. There is no way to edit template category individual values.
The switch reload is required to use a new SDM template.
The ACL merge algorithm, as opposed to the original access control entries (ACEs) configured by
the user, generate the number of TCAM entries listed for security and QoS ACEs.
The first eight lines (up to Security ACEs) represent approximate hardware boundaries set when
a template is used. If the boundary is exceeded, all processing overflow is sent to the CPU which
can have a major impact on the performance of the switch. Choosing the VLAN template will
actually disable routing (number of entry for unicast or multicast route is zero) in hardware.

QUESTION 15
An access switch has been configured with an EtherChannel port. After configuring SPAN to
monitor this port, the network administrator notices that not all traffic is being replicated to the
management server. What is a cause for this issue?

A. VLAN filters are required to ensure traffic mirrors effectively.
B. SPAN encapsulation replication must be enabled to capture EtherChannel destination traffic.
C. The port channel can be used as a SPAN source, but not a destination.
D. RSPAN must be used to capture EtherChannel bidirectional traffic.

Answer: C
Explanation:
A source port or EtherChannel is a port or EtherChannel monitored for traffic analysis.
You can configure both Layer 2 and Layer 3 ports and EtherChannels as SPAN sources.
SPAN can monitor one or more source ports or EtherChannels in a single SPAN session.
You can configure ports or EtherChannels in any VLAN as SPAN sources. Trunk ports or
EtherChannels can be configured as sources and mixed with nontrunk sources.
A port-channel interface (an EtherChannel) can be a SPAN source, but not a destination.

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QUESTION 16
A DHCP configured router is connected directly to a switch that has been provisioned with DHCP
snooping. IP Source Guard with the ip verify source port-security command is configured under
the interfaces that connect to all DHCP clients on the switch. However, clients are not receiving
an IP address via the DHCP server. Which option is the cause of this issue?

A. The DHCP server does not support information option 82.
B. The DHCP client interfaces have storm control configured.
C. Static DHCP bindings are not configured on the switch.
D. DHCP snooping must be enabled on all VLANs, even if they are not utilized for dynamic address
allocation.

Answer: A
Explanation:
When you enable both IP Source Guard and Port Security, using the ip verify source port-
security interface configuration command, there are two caveats:
The DHCP server must support option 82, or the client is not assigned an IP address.
The MAC address in the DHCP packet is not learned as a secure address. The MAC address of
the DHCP client is learned as a secure address only when the switch receives non-DHCP data
traffic.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/lan/catalyst3550/software/release/12-
2_25_see/configuration/guide/3550SCG/swdhcp82.html#wp1069615

QUESTION 17
A switch is added into the production network to increase port capacity. A network engineer is
configuring the switch for DHCP snooping and IP Source Guard, but is unable to configure ip
verify source under several of the interfaces. Which option is the cause of the problem?

A. The local DHCP server is disabled prior to enabling IP Source Guard.
B. The interfaces are configured as Layer 3 using the no switchport command.
C. No VLANs exist on the switch and/or the switch is configured in VTP transparent mode.
D. The switch is configured for sdm prefer routing as the switched database management template.
E. The configured SVIs on the switch have been removed for the associated interfaces.

Answer: B
Explanation:
IP source guard is a security feature that restricts IP traffic on nonrouted, Layer 2 interfaces by
filtering traffic based on the DHCP snooping binding database and on manually configured IP
source bindings. You can use IP source guard to prevent traffic attacks caused when a host tries
to use the IP address of its neighbor.
You can enable IP source guard when DHCP snooping is enabled on an untrusted interface.
After IP source guard is enabled on an interface, the switch blocks all IP traffic received on the
interface, except for DHCP packets allowed by DHCP snooping. A port access control list (ACL)
is applied to the interface. The port ACL allows only IP traffic with a source IP address in the IP
source binding table and denies all other traffic.
The IP source binding table has bindings that are learned by DHCP snooping or are manually
configured (static IP source bindings). An entry in this table has an IP address, its associated
MAC address, and its associated VLAN number. The switch uses the IP source binding table only
when IP source guard is enabled.
IP source guard is supported only on Layer 2 ports, including access and trunk ports. You can
configure IP source guard with source IP address filtering or with

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source IP and MAC address filtering.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/lan/catalyst3550/software/release/12-
2_25_see/configuration/guide/3550SCG/swdhcp82.html#wp1069615

QUESTION 18
The command storm-control broadcast level 75 65 is configured under the switch port connected
to the corporate mail server. In which three ways does this command impact the traffic? (Choose
three.)

A. SNMP traps are sent by default when broadcast traffic reaches 65% of the lower-level threshold.
B. The switchport is disabled when unicast traffic reaches 75% of the total interface bandwidth.
C. The switch resumes forwarding broadcasts when they are below 65% of bandwidth.
D. Only broadcast traffic is limited by this particular storm control configuration.
E. Multicast traffic is dropped at 65% and broadcast traffic is dropped at 75% of the total interface
bandwidth.
F. The switch drops broadcasts when they reach 75% of bandwidth.

Answer: CDF
Explanation:
storm-control {broad- Configure broadcast, multicast, or unicast storm control. By de- cast |
multicast | uni- fault, storm control is disabled.
cast} level {level [lev-
The keywords have these meanings:
el-low] | pps pps [pps-low]}
For level, specify the rising threshold level for broadcast, multicast, or unicast traffic as a
percentage (up to two decimal places) of the bandwidth. The port blocks traffic when the rising
threshold is reached. The range is 0.00 to 100.00.
(Optional) For level-low, specify the falling threshold level as a percentage (up to two decimal
places) of the bandwidth. This value must be less than or equal to the rising suppression value.
The port forwards traffic when traffic drops below this level. If you do not configure a falling
suppression level, it is set to the rising suppression level. The range is 0.00 to 100.00.
In this case, the broadcast keyword was used so only broadcast traffic is limited. http://
Reference: www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/lan/catalyst3550/software/release/12-
2_25_see/configuration/guide/3550SCG/swtrafc.html

QUESTION 19
After UDLD is implemented, a Network Administrator noticed that one port stops receiving UDLD
packets. This port continues to reestablish until after eight failed retries. The port then transitions
into the errdisable state. Which option describes what causes the port to go into the errdisable
state?

A. Normal UDLD operations that prevent traffic loops.
B. UDLD port is configured in aggressive mode.
C. UDLD is enabled globally.
D. UDLD timers are inconsistent.

Answer: B
Explanation:
With UDLD aggressive mode enabled, when a port on a bidirectional link that has a UDLD
neighbor relationship established stops receiving UDLD packets, UDLD tries to reestablish the
connection with the neighbor.
After eight failed retries, the port is disabled.

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QUESTION 20
After reviewing UDLD status on switch ports, an engineer notices that the current bidirectional
state for an access port is "Unknown." Which statement describes what this indicates about the
status of the port?

A. The port is fully operational and no known issues are detected.
B. The bidirectional status of "unknown" indicates that the port will go into the disabled state
because it stopped receiving UDLD packets from its neighbor.
C. UDLD moved into aggressive mode after inconsistent acknowledgements were detected.
D. The UDLD port is placed in the "unknown" state for 5 seconds until the next UDLD packet is
received on the interface.

Answer: A
Explanation:
By default, UDLD is disabled on all interfaces. We can enable UDLD globally on the device, or
individually on specific interfaces with the command udld port. This enables UDLD in normal
mode.
It would be prohibitively difficult to coordinate the configuration of UDLD on both ends of a link at
the same time, so when UDLD is first enabled and does not detect a neighbor the link state is
considered unknown, which is not necessarily an error condition. The port will remain operational
during this time. When UDLD is finally enabled on the other end, the status will transition to
bidirectional.

QUESTION 21
Pilot testing of the new switching infrastructure finds that when the root port is lost, STP
immediately replaces the root port with an alternative root port. Which spanning-tree technology
is used to accomplish backup root port selection?

A. PVST+
B. PortFast
C. BackboneFast
D. UplinkFast
E. Loop Guard
F. UDLD

Answer: D
Explanation:
If a switch loses connectivity, it begins using the alternate paths as soon as the spanning tree
selects a new root port. By enabling UplinkFast with the spanning-tree uplinkfast global
configuration command, you can accelerate the choice of a new root port when a link or switch
fails or when the spanning tree reconfigures itself. The root port transitions to the forwarding state
immediately without going through the listening and learning states, as it would with the normal
spanning-tree procedures. UplinkFast provides fast convergence after a direct link failure and
achieves load balancing between redundant Layer 2 links using uplink groups. An uplink group is
a set of Layer 2 interfaces (per VLAN), only one of which is forwarding at any given time.
Specifically, an uplink group consists of the root port (which is forwarding) and a set of blocked
ports, except for self-looping ports. The uplink group provides an alternate path in case the
currently forwarding link fails.

QUESTION 22

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A network engineer must adjust the STP interface attributes to influence root port selection.
Which two elements are used to accomplish this? (Choose two.)

A. port-priority
B. cost
C. forward-timers
D. link type
E. root guard

Answer: AB
Explanation:
Spanning tree forces redundant data paths into a standby (blocked) state. If a network segment in
the spanning tree fails and a redundant path exists, the spanning-tree algorithm recalculates the
spanning-tree topology and activates the standby path. Switches send and receive spanning-tree
frames, called bridge protocol data units (BPDUs), at regular intervals. The switches do not
forward these frames but use them to construct a loop-free path. BPDUs contain information
about the sending switch and its ports, including switch and MAC addresses, switch priority, port
priority, and path cost. Spanning tree uses this information to elect the root switch and root port
for the switched network and the root port and designated port for each switched segment. When
two ports on a switch are part of a loop, the spanning-tree port priority and path cost settings
control which port is put in the forwarding state and which is put in the blocking state. The
spanning-tree port priority value represents the location of a port in the network topology and how
well it is located to pass traffic. The path cost value represents the media speed.

QUESTION 23
A network engineer must set the load balance method on an existing port channel. Which action
must be done to apply a new load balancing method?

A. Configure the new load balancing method using port-channel load-balance.
B. Adjust the switch SDM back to "default".
C. Ensure that IP CEF is enabled globally to support all load balancing methods.
D. Upgrade the PFC to support the latest load balancing methods.

Answer: A
Explanation:
EtherChannel balances the traffic load across the links in a channel through the reduction of part
of the binary pattern that the addresses in the frame form to a numerical value that selects one of
the links in the channel.
EtherChannel load balancing can use MAC addresses or IP addresses, source or destination
addresses, or both source and destination addresses. The mode applies to all EtherChannels
that are configured on the switch.
You configure the load balancing and forwarding method with use of the port-channel load-
balance {dst-ip | dst-mac | src-dst-ip | src-dst-mac | src-ip | src-mac} global configuration
command.

QUESTION 24
Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer investigates a recent network failure and notices that one
of the interfaces on the switch is still down. What is causing the line protocol on this interface to
be shown as down?

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A. There is a layer 1 physical issue.
B. There is a speed mismatch on the interface.
C. The interface is configured as the target of the SPAN session.
D. The interface is configured as the source of the SPAN session.
E. There is a duplex mismatch on the interface.

Answer: C
Explanation:
With the SAPN destination port, the state of the destination port is up/down by design. The
interface shows the port in this state in order to make it evident that the port is currently not
usable as a production port. This is the normal operational state for SPAN destinations.

QUESTION 25
While doing network discovery using Cisco Discovery Protocol, it is found that rapid error tracking
is not currently enabled. Which option must be enabled to allow for enhanced reporting
mechanisms using Cisco Discovery Protocol?

A. Cisco Discovery Protocol version 2
B. Cisco IOS Embedded Event Manager
C. logging buffered
D. Cisco Discovery Protocol source interface
E. Cisco Discovery Protocol logging options

Answer: A
Explanation:
CDP Version 1 -- This is the first version of CDP which was used for the discovery of Cisco
devices in the network. This version is mainly used for backward compatibility.
CDP Version 2 -- This is the most recent version of CDP which has enhanced features such as
rapid reporting mechanism, which is used to track down errors and minimize costly downtime. It
allows you to track instances even if the native VLAN ID or port duplex states do not match
between connecting devices.
This is the default version on all switches.

QUESTION 26
After port security is deployed throughout an enterprise campus, the network team has been
overwhelmed with port reset requests. They decide to configure the network to automate the
process of re-enabling user ports. Which command accomplishes this task?

A. switch(config)# errdisable recovery interval 180

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B. switch(config)# errdisable recovery cause psecure-violation
C. switch(config)# switchport port-security protect
D. switch(config)# switchport port-security aging type inactivity
E. switch(config)# errdisable recovery cause security-violation

Answer: B
Explanation:
When a secure port is in the error-disabled state, you can bring it out of this state automatically by
configuring the errdisable recovery cause psecure-violation global configuration command or you
can manually reenable it by entering the shutdown and no shut down interface configuration
commands. This is the default mode. If a port is in per-VLAN errdisable mode, you can also use
clear errdisable interface name vlan range command to re-enable the VLAN on the port. You can
also customize the time to recover from the specified error disable cause (default is 300 seconds)
by entering the errdisable recovery interval interval command. Reference: Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/lan/catalyst4500/12-
2/53SG/configuration/config/port_sec.pdf

QUESTION 27
The network monitoring application alerts a network engineer of a client PC that is acting as a
rogue DHCP server. Which two commands help trace this PC when the MAC address is known?
(Choose two.)

A. switch# show mac address-table
B. switch# show port-security
C. switch# show ip verify source
D. switch# show ip arp inspection
E. switch# show mac address-table address <mac address>

Answer: AE
Explanation:
These two commands will show the MAC address table, including the switch port that the
particular host is using. Here is an example output:
Switch> show mac-address-table
Dynamic Addresses Count: 9
Secure Addresses (User-defined) Count: 0
Static Addresses (User-defined) Count: 0
System Self Addresses Count: 41 Total MAC addresses: 50 Non-static Address Table:
Destination Address Address Type VLAN Destination Port ------------------- ------------ ---- --------------
------ 0010.0de0.e289 Dynamic 1 FastEthernet0/1 0010.7b00.1540 Dynamic 2 FastEthernet0/5
0010.7b00.1545 Dynamic 2 FastEthernet0/5

QUESTION 28
A network engineer has just deployed a non-Cisco device in the network and wants to get
information about it from a connected device. Cisco Discovery Protocol is not supported, so the
open standard protocol must be configured. Which protocol does the network engineer configure
on both devices to accomplish this?

A. IRDP
B. LLDP
C. NDP
D. LLTD

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Answer: B
Explanation:
The Link Layer Discovery Protocol (LLDP) is a vendor-neutral link layer protocol in the Internet
Protocol Suite used by network devices for advertising their identity, capabilities, and neighbors
on an IEEE 802 local area network, principally wired Ethernet. LLDP performs functions similar to
several proprietary protocols, such as the Cisco Discovery Protocol (CDP).

QUESTION 29
A manager tells the network engineer to permit only certain VLANs across a specific trunk
interface. Which option can be configured to accomplish this?

A. allowed VLAN list
B. VTP pruning
C. VACL
D. L2P tunneling

Answer: A
Explanation:
When a trunk link is established, all of the configured VLANs are allowed to send and receive
traffic across the link. VLANs 1 through 1005 are allowed on each trunk by default. However,
VLAN traffic can be removed from the allowed list. This keeps traffic from the VLANs from
passing over the trunk link.
Note: The allowed VLAN list on both the ends of the trunk link should be the same.
For Integrated Cisco IOS Software based switches, perform these steps:
1.To restrict the traffic that a trunk carries, issue the switchport trunk vlan-list interface
configuration command.
This removes specific VLANs from the allowed list.

QUESTION 30
For client server failover purposes, the application server team has indicated that they must not
have the standard 30 second delay before their switchport enters a forwarding state. For their
disaster recovery feature to operate successfully, they require the switchport to enter a forwarding
state immediately. Which spanning-tree feature satisfies this requirement?

A. Rapid Spanning-Tree
B. Spanning-Tree Timers
C. Spanning-Tree FastPort
D. Spanning-Tree PortFast
E. Spanning-Tree Fast Forward

Answer: D
Explanation:
In order to allow immediate transition of the port into forwarding state, enable the STP PortFast
feature.
PortFast immediately transitions the port into STP forwarding mode upon linkup. The port still
participates in STP. So if the port is to be a part of the loop, the port eventually transitions into
STP blocking mode.
Example configuration:
Switch-C# configure terminal
Switch-C(config)# interface range fa0/3 - 24
Switch-C(config-if-range)# spanning-tree portfast

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QUESTION 31
Which command does a network engineer use to verify the spanning-tree status for VLAN 10?

A. switch# show spanning-tree vlan 10
B. switch# show spanning-tree bridge
C. switch# show spanning-tree brief
D. switch# show spanning-tree summary
E. switch# show spanning-tree vlan 10 brief

Answer: A
Explanation:
show spanning-tree Displays information about the spanning-tree state.
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/ios/lanswitch/command/reference/lsw_s2.html

QUESTION 32
A new network that consists of several switches has been connected together via trunking
interfaces. If all switches currently have the default VTP domain name "null", which statement
describes what happens when a domain name is configured on one of the switches?

A. The switch with the non-default domain name restores back to "null" upon reboot.
B. Switches with higher revision numbers does not accept the new domain name.
C. VTP summary advertisements are sent out of all ports with the new domain name.
D. All other switches with the default domain name become VTP clients.

Answer: C
Explanation:
By default, a switch will have a domain name of NULL and no password. If the switch hears a
VTP advertisement it will automatically learn the VTP domain name, VLANs, and the
configuration revision number.
Summary advertisements sent out every 300 seconds and every time a change occurs on the
VLAN database. Contained in a summary advertisement:
VTP version
Domain name
Configuration revision number
Time stamp
MD5 encryption hash code

QUESTION 33
While troubleshooting a network outage, a network engineer discovered an unusually high level
of broadcast traffic coming from one of the switch interfaces. Which option decreases
consumption of bandwidth used by broadcast traffic?

A. storm control
B. SDM routing
C. Cisco IOS parser
D. integrated routing and bridging
E. Dynamic ARP Inspection

Answer: A
Explanation:
Storm control prevents traffic on a LAN from being disrupted by a broadcast, multicast, or unicast

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storm on a port. A LAN storm occurs when packets flood the LAN, creating excessive traffic and
degrading network performance. Errors in the protocol-stack implementation, mistakes in network
configuration, or users issuing a denial-of-service attack can cause a storm. Storm control is
configured for the switch as a whole but operates on a per-port basis. By default, storm control is
disabled.
Storm control uses rising and falling thresholds to block and then restore the forwarding of
broadcast, unicast, or multicast packets. You can also set the switch to shut down the port when
the rising threshold is reached.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/lan/catalyst2950/software/release/12-
1_22ea/SCG/scg/swtrafc.html

QUESTION 34
A network engineer is setting up a new switched network. The network is expected to grow and
add many new VLANs in the future. Which Spanning Tree Protocol should be used to reduce
switch resources and managerial burdens that are associated with multiple spanning-tree
instances?

A. RSTP
B. PVST
C. MST
D. PVST+
E. RPVST+

Answer: C
Explanation:
Multiple Spanning Tree (MST) extends the IEEE 802.1w RST algorithm to multiple spanning
trees. The main purpose of MST is to reduce the total number of spanning-tree instances to
match the physical topology of the network and thus reduce the CPU cycles of a switch.
PVRST+ runs STP instances for each VLAN and does not take into consideration the physical
topology that might not require many different STP topologies. MST, on the other hand, uses a
minimum number of STP instances to match the number of physical topologies present.

QUESTION 35
Which statement about the use of SDM templates in a Cisco switch is true?

A. SDM templates are used to configure system resources in the switch to optimize support for
specific features, depending on how the switch is used in the network.
B. SDM templates are used to create Layer 3 interfaces (switch virtual interfaces) to permit hosts
in one VLAN to communicate with hosts in another VLAN.
C. SDM templates are used to configure ACLs that protect networks and specific hosts from
unnecessary or unwanted traffic.
D. SDM templates are used to configure a set of ACLs that allows the users to manage the flow
of traffic handled by the route processor.
E. SDM templates are configured by accessing the switch using the web interface.

Answer: A
Explanation:
You can use SDM templates to configure system resources in the switch to optimize support for
specific features, depending on how the switch is used in the network. You can select a template
to provide maximum system usage for some functions; for example, use the default template to
balance resources, and use access template to obtain maximum ACL usage. To allocate

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hardware resources for different usages, the switch SDM templates prioritize system resources to
optimize support for certain features.

QUESTION 36
Which SDM template disables routing and supports the maximum number of unicast MAC
addresses?

A. VLAN
B. access
C. default
D. routing

Answer: A
Explanation:
To allocate ternary content addressable memory (TCAM) resources for different usages, the
switch SDM templates prioritize system resources to optimize support for certain features. You
can select SDM templates to optimize these features:
Access--The access template maximizes system resources for access control lists (ACLs) to
accommodate a large number of ACLs.
Default--The default template gives balance to all functions.
Routing--The routing template maximizes system resources for IPv4 unicast routing, typically
required for a router or aggregator in the center of a network.
VLANs--The VLAN template disables routing and supports the maximum number of unicast MAC
addresses. It would typically be selected for a Layer 2 switch.

QUESTION 37
Which SDM template is the most appropriate for a Layer 2 switch that provides connectivity to a
large number of clients?

A. VLAN
B. default
C. access
D. routing

Answer: A
Explanation:
To allocate ternary content addressable memory (TCAM) resources for different usages, the
switch SDM templates prioritize system resources to optimize support for certain features. You
can select SDM templates to optimize these features:
Access--The access template maximizes system resources for access control lists (ACLs) to
accommodate a large number of ACLs.
Default--The default template gives balance to all functions.
Routing--The routing template maximizes system resources for IPv4 unicast routing, typically
required for a router or aggregator in the center of a network.
VLANs--The VLAN template disables routing and supports the maximum number of unicast MAC
addresses (clients). It would typically be selected for a Layer 2 switch.

QUESTION 38
In a Cisco switch, what is the default period of time after which a MAC address ages out and is
discarded?

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A. 100 seconds
B. 180 seconds
C. 300 seconds
D. 600 seconds

Answer: C
Explanation:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/switches/datacenter/nexus5000/sw/configuration/guide/cli/MAC
Address.html

QUESTION 39
If a network engineer applies the command mac-address-table notification mac-move on a Cisco
switch port, when is a syslog message generated??

A. A MAC address or host moves between different switch ports.
B. A new MAC address is added to the content-addressable memory.
C. A new MAC address is removed from the content-addressable memory.
D. More than 64 MAC addresses are added to the content-addressable memory.

Answer: A
Explanation:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/ios/lanswitch/command/reference/lsw_m1.html

QUESTION 40
Which option is a possible cause for an errdisabled interface?

A. routing loop
B. cable unplugged
C. STP loop guard
D. security violation

Answer: D
Explanation:
There are various reasons for the interface to go into errdisable.
The reason can be:
Duplex mismatch
Port channel misconfiguration
BPDU guard violation
UniDirectional Link Detection (UDLD) condition
Late-collision detection
Link-flap detection
Security violation
Port Aggregation Protocol (PAgP) flap
Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol (L2TP) guard
DHCP snooping rate-limit
Incorrect GBIC / Small Form-Factor Pluggable (SFP) module or cable Address Resolution
Protocol (ARP) inspection
Inline power
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk389/tk621/ technologies_tech_note09186a00806cd87b.shtml

QUESTION 41

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To provide security, a service provider configures various private VLANs in its backbone network
infrastructure to prevent certain VLAN communication to each other.
Which version of VTP supports the use of private VLANs?

A. Version 1
B. Version 3
C. VTP does not support private VLANs
D. Version 2

Answer: B

QUESTION 42
Which statement about HSRP, GLBP, and VRRP is true?

A. VRRP group members communicate using multicast address 224.0.0.102.
B. MAC address 0000.0c07.acOc indicates that default gateway redundancy is provided through
GLBP.
C. HSRP group members communicate using multicast address 224.0.0.18.
D. GLBP uses UDP port 3222 (source and destination) for hello messages.

Answer: D

QUESTION 43
Which statement about Cisco devices learning about each other through Cisco Discovery
Protocol is true?

A. Each device sends periodic advertisements to multicast address 01:00:0C:CC:CC:CC.
B. Each device broadcasts periodic advertisements to all of its neighbors.
C. Each device sends periodic advertisements to a central device that builds the network topology.
D. Each device sends periodic advertisements to all IP addresses in its ARP table.

Answer: A
Explanation:
Cisco devices send periodic CDP announcements to the multicast destination address 01-00-0c-
cc-cc-cc, out each connected network interface. These multicast packets may be received by
Cisco switches and other networking devices that support CDP into their connected network
interface.

QUESTION 44
Which option lists the information that is contained in a Cisco Discovery Protocol advertisement?

A. native VLAN IDs, port-duplex, hardware platform
B. native VLAN IDs, port-duplex, memory errors
C. native VLAN IDs, memory errors, hardware platform
D. port-duplex, hardware platform, memory errors

Answer: A
Explanation:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/ios/12_2/configfun/configuration/guide/fcf015.html

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QUESTION 45
Which option describes a limitation of LLDP?

A. LLDP cannot provide information about VTP.
B. LLDP does not support TLVs.
C. LLDP can discover only Windows servers.
D. LLDP can discover up to two devices per port.

Answer: A

QUESTION 46
Which statement about the UDLD protocol is true?

A. UDLD is a Cisco-proprietary Layer 2 protocol that enables devices to monitor the physical status
of links and detect unidirectional failures.
B. UDLD is a Cisco-proprietary Layer 2 protocol that enables devices to advertise their identity,
capabilities, and neighbors on a local area network.
C. UDLD is a standardized Layer 2 protocol that enables devices to monitor the physical status of
links and detect unidirectional failures.
D. UDLD is a standardized Layer 2 protocol that enables devices to advertise their identity,
capabilities, and neighbors on a local area network.

Answer: A
Explanation:
The Cisco-proprietary UDLD protocol monitors the physical configuration of the links between
devices and ports that support UDLD. UDLD detects the existence of unidirectional links. When a
unidirectional link is detected, UDLD puts the affected port into the errdisabled state and alerts
the user.
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/switches/lan/catalyst6500/ios/12.2SX/configuration/guide/udld.
html

QUESTION 47
Which option lists the modes that are available for configuring UDLD on a Cisco switch?

A. normal and aggressive
B. active and aggressive
C. normal and active
D. normal and passive
E. normal and standby

Answer: A
Explanation:
The Cisco-proprietary UDLD protocol monitors the physical configuration of the links between
devices and ports that support UDLD. UDLD detects the existence of unidirectional links. When a
unidirectional link is detected, UDLD puts the affected port into the errdisabled state and alerts
the user. UDLD can operate in either normal or aggressive mode.
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/switches/lan/catalyst6500/ios/12.2SX/configuration/guide/udld.
html

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QUESTION 48
What is the default interval at which Cisco devices send Cisco Discovery Protocol
advertisements?

A. 30 seconds
B. 60 seconds
C. 120 seconds
D. 300 seconds

Answer: B
Explanation:
Cisco Discovery Protocol is a Layer 2, media-independent, and network-independent protocol
that networking applications use to learn about nearby, directly connected devices. Cisco
Discovery Protocol is enabled by default. Each device configured for Cisco Discovery Protocol
advertises at least one address at which the device can receive messages and sends periodic
advertisements (messages) to the well-known multicast address 01:00:0C:CC:CC:CC. Devices
discover each other by listening at that address. They also listen to messages to learn when
interfaces on other devices are up or go down.
Advertisements contain time-to-live information, which indicates the length of time a receiving
device should hold Cisco Discovery Protocol information before discarding it. Advertisements
supported and configured in Cisco software are sent, by default, every 60 seconds.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/ US/docs/ios-xml/ios/cdp/configuration/15-mt/nm-cdp-
discover.html

QUESTION 49
Which statement about Cisco Discovery Protocol configuration on a Cisco switch is true?

A. CDP is enabled by default and can be disabled globally with the command no cdp run.
B. CDP is disabled by default and can be enabled globally with the command cdp enable.
C. CDP is enabled by default and can be disabled globally with the command no cdp enable.
D. CDP is disabled by default and can be enabled globally with the command cdp run.

Answer: A
Explanation:
CDP is enabled on your router by default, which means the Cisco IOS software will receive CDP
information. CDP also is enabled on supported interfaces by default. To disable CDP on an
interface, use the "no cdp enable interface" configuration command. To disable it globally, use the
"no cdp run" command.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/ios/12_2/configfun/command/reference/frf015.html

QUESTION 50
Which VTP mode is needed to configure an extended VLAN, when a switch is configured to use
VTP versions 1 or 2?

A. transparent
B. client
C. server
D. Extended VLANs are only supported in version 3 and not in versions 1 or 2.

Answer: D
Explanation:

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VTP version 1 and version 2 support VLANs 1 to 1000 only. Extended-range VLANs are
supported only in VTP version 3.
If converting from VTP version 3 to VTP version 2, VLANs in the range 1006 to 4094 are removed
from VTP control.
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/switches/lan/catalyst6500/ios/12.2SX/configuration/guide/vtp.ht
ml

QUESTION 51
What is the size of the VLAN field inside an 802.1q frame?

A. 8-bit
B. 12-bit
C. 16-bit
D. 32-bit

Answer: B
Explanation:
The VLAN field is a 12-bit field specifying the VLAN to which the frame belongs. The hexadecimal
values of 0x000 and 0xFFF are reserved. All other values may be used as VLAN identifiers,
allowing up to 4,094 VLANs.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/IEEE_802.1Q

QUESTION 52
What is the maximum number of VLANs that can be assigned to an access switchport without a
voice VLAN?

A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 1024

Answer: B
Explanation:
A standard (non-voice VLAN port) access switch port can belong to only a single VLAN. If more
than one VLAN is needed, the port should be configured as a trunk port.

QUESTION 53
Refer to the exhibit. Which option shows the expected result if a show vlan command is issued?

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A.

B.

C.

D.

Answer: A
Explanation:
In this case, the port has been configured both as a trunk and as a switchport in data vlan 10.
Obviously, a port can not be both, so even though Cisco IOS will accept both, the port will

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actually be used as a trunk, ignoring the switchport access VLAN 10 command.

QUESTION 54
Which feature is automatically enabled when a voice VLAN is configured, but not automatically
disabled when a voice VLAN is removed?

A. portfast
B. port-security
C. spanning tree
D. storm control

Answer: A
Explanation:
Voice VLAN Configuration Guidelines
You should configure voice VLAN on switch access ports.
The voice VLAN should be present and active on the switch for the IP phone to correctly
communicate on the voice VLAN. Use the show vlan privileged EXEC command to see if the
VLAN is present (listed in the display).
The Port Fast feature is automatically enabled when voice VLAN is configured. When you disable
voice VLAN, the Port Fast feature is not automatically disabled.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/switches/lan/catalyst2950/software/
release/12.1_22_ea11x/configuration/guide/swvoip.html

QUESTION 55
In which portion of the frame is the 802.1q header found?

A. within the Ethernet header
B. within the Ethernet payload
C. within the Ethernet FCS
D. within the Ethernet source MAC address

Answer: A
Explanation:
Frame format

Insertion of 802.1Q tag in an Ethernet frame 802.1Q does not encapsulate the original frame.
Instead, for Ethernet frames, it adds a 32-bit field between the source MAC address and the
EtherType/length fields of the original frame.
Reference: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/IEEE_802.1Q

QUESTION 56
Which VLAN range is eligible to be pruned when a network engineer enables VTP pruning on a
switch?

A. VLANs 1-1001
B. VLANs 1-4094

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C. VLANs 2-1001
D. VLANs 2-4094

Answer: C
Explanation:
VTP pruning should only be enabled on VTP servers, all the clients in the VTP domain will
automatically enable VTP pruning. By default, VLANs 2 1001 are pruning eligible, but VLAN 1
can't be pruned because it's an administrative VLAN. Both VTP versions 1 and 2 supports
pruning.
Reference: http://www.orbit-computer-solutions.com/VTP-Pruning.php

QUESTION 57
Which action allows a network engineer to limit a default VLAN from being propagated across all
trunks?

A. Upgrade to VTP version 3 for advanced feature set support.
B. Enable VTP pruning on the VTP server.
C. Manually prune default VLAN with switchport trunk allowed vlans remove.
D. Use trunk pruning vlan 1.

Answer: C
Explanation:
Manaully pruning the default VLAN (1) can only be done with the "switchport trunk allowed vlans
remove" command. VLAN 1 is not VTP pruning eligible so it cannot be done via VTP pruning.
The "trunk pruning vlan 1" option is not a valid command.

QUESTION 58
What is required for a LAN switch to support 802.1q Q-in-Q encapsulation?

A. Support less than 1500 MTU
B. Support 1504 MTU or higher
C. Support 1522 layer 3 IP and IPX packet
D. Support 1547 MTU only

Answer: B
Explanation:
The default system MTU for traffic on Catalyst switches is 1500 bytes. Because the 802.1Q
tunneling (Q- in-Q) feature increases the frame size by 4 bytes when the extra tag is added, you
must configure all switches in the service-provider network to be able to process maximum
frames by increasing the switch system MTU
size to at least 1504 bytes.
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/switches/lan/catalyst3550/software/release/12.1_13_ea1/config
uration/guide/swtunnel.html

QUESTION 59
Refer to the exhibit. How many bytes are added to each frame as a result of the configuration?

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A. 4-bytes except the native VLAN
B. 8-bytes except the native VLAN
C. 4-bytes including native VLAN
D. 8-bytes including native VLAN

Answer: A
Explanation:
In 802.1Q trunking, all VLAN packets are tagged on the trunk link, except the native VLAN. A
VLAN tag adds 4 bytes to the frame. Two bytes are used for the tag protocol identifier (TPID), the
other two bytes for tag control information (TCI).

QUESTION 60
A network engineer configured a fault-tolerance link on Gigabit Ethernet links G0/1, G0/2, G0/3,
and G0/4 between two switches using Ethernet port-channel. Which action allows interface G0/1
to always actively forward traffic in the port-channel?

A. Configure G0/1 as half duplex and G0/2 as full duplex.
B. Configure LACP port-priority on G0/1 to 1.
C. Configure LACP port-priority on G0/1 to 65535.
D. LACP traffic goes through G0/4 because it is the highest interface ID.

Answer: B
Explanation:
A LACP port priority is configured on each port using LACP. The port priority can be configured
automatically or through the CLI. LACP uses the port priority with the port number to form the port
identifier. The port priority determines which ports should be put in standby mode when there is a
hardware limitation that prevents all compatible ports from aggregating. The higher the number,
the lower the priority. The valid range is from 1 to 65535. The default is 32768.
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios/12_2sb/feature/guide/gigeth.html#wp1081491

QUESTION 61
Which statement about the use of PAgP link aggregation on a Cisco switch that is running Cisco
IOS Software is true?

A. PAgP modes are off, auto, desirable, and on. Only the combinations auto-desirable, desirable-
desirable, and on-on allow the formation of a channel.
B. PAgP modes are active, desirable, and on. Only the combinations active-desirable, desirable-
desirable, and on-on allow the formation of a channel.
C. PAgP modes are active, desirable, and on. Only the combinations active-active, desirable-
desirable, and on-on allow the formation of a channel.
D. PAgP modes are off, active, desirable, and on. Only the combinations auto-auto, desirable-
desirable, and on-on allow the formation of a channel.

Answer: A
Explanation:

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PAgP modes are off, auto, desirable, and on. Only the combinations auto-desirable, desirable-
desirable, and on-on will allow a channel to be formed.
The PAgP modes are explained below.
1.on: PAgP will not run. The channel is forced to come up.
2.off: PAgP will not run. The channel is forced to remain down.
3.auto: PAgP is running passively. The formation of a channel is desired; however, it is not
initiated.
4.desirable: PAgP is running actively. The formation of a channel is desired and ini- tiated.
Only the combinations of auto-desirable, desirable-desirable, and on-on will allow a channel to be
formed.
If a device on one side of the channel does not support PAgP, such as a router, the device on the
other side must have PAgP set to on.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/switches/catalyst-2900-xl-series-
switches/21041-131.html

QUESTION 62
Refer to the exhibit. Which EtherChannel negotiation protocol is configured on the interface f0/13
- f0/15?

A. Link Combination Control Protocol

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B. Port Aggregation Protocol
C. Port Combination Protocol
D. Link Aggregation Control Protocol

Answer: B
Explanation:
PAgP modes are off, auto, desirable, and on. Only the combinations auto-desirable, desirable-
desirable, and on-on will allow a channel to be formed. .
1.on: PAgP will not run. The channel is forced to come up.
2.off: PAgP will not run. The channel is forced to remain down.
3.auto: PAgP is running passively. The formation of a channel is desired; however, it is not
initiated.
4.desirable: PAgP is running actively. The formation of a channel is desired and ini- tiated.
The Link Aggregate Control Protocol (LACP) trunking supports four modes of operation:
On: The link aggregation is forced to be formed without any LACP negotiation .In other words, the
switch neither sends the LACP packet nor processes any inbound LACP packet. This is similar to
the on state for PAgP.
Off: The link aggregation is not formed. We do not send or understand the LACP packet.
This is similar to the off state for PAgP.
Passive: The switch does not initiate the channel but does understand inbound LACP packets.
The peer (in active state) initiates negotiation (when it sends out an LACP packet) which we
receive and answer, eventually to form the aggregation channel with the peer. This is similar to
the auto mode in PAgP.
Active: We can form an aggregate link and initiate the negotiation. The link aggregate is formed if
the other end runs in LACP active or passive mode. This is
similar to the desir- able mode of PAgP. In this example, we see that fa 0/13, fa0/14, and fa0/15
are all in Port Channel 12, which is operating in desirable mode, which is only a PAgP mode.

QUESTION 63
Refer to the exhibit. Users of PC-1 experience slow connection when a webpage is requested
from the server. To increase bandwidth, the network engineer configured an EtherChannel on
interfaces Fa1/0 and Fa0/1 of the server farm switch, as shown here:

Server_Switch#sh etherchannel load-balance
EtherChannel Load-Balancing Operational State (src-mac):
Non-IP: Source MAC address
IPv4: Source MAC address
IPv6: Source IP address
Server_Switch#

However, traffic is still slow. Which action can the engineer take to resolve this issue?

A. Disable EtherChannel load balancing.
B. Upgrade the switch IOS to IP services image.

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C. Change the load-balance method to dst-mac.
D. Contact Cisco TAC to report a bug on the switch.

Answer: C
Explanation:
Since this traffic is coming from PC-1, the source MAC address will always be that of PC-1, and
since the load balancing method is source MAC, traffic will only be using one of the port channel
links. The load balancing method should be changed to destination MAC, since the web server
has two NICs traffic will be load balanced across both MAC addresses.

QUESTION 64
A network engineer changed the port speed and duplex setting of an existing EtherChannel
bundle that uses the PAgP protocol. Which statement describes what happens to all ports in the
bundle?

A. PAgP changes the port speed and duplex for all ports in the bundle.
B. PAgP drops the ports that do not match the configuration.
C. PAgP does not change the port speed and duplex for all ports in the bundle until the switch is
rebooted.
D. PAgP changes the port speed but not the duplex for all ports in the bundle.

Answer: A
Explanation:
PAgP aids in the automatic creation of EtherChannel links. PAgP packets are sent between
EtherChannel- capable ports in order to negotiate the formation of a channel. Some restrictions
are deliberately introduced into PAgP. The restrictions are: PAgP does not form a bundle on ports
that are configured for dynamic VLANs. PAgP requires that all ports in the channel belong to the
same VLAN or are configured as trunk ports. When a bundle already exists and a VLAN of a port
is modified, all ports in the bundle are modified to match that VLAN.
PAgP does not group ports that operate at different speeds or port duplex. If speed and duplex
change when a bundle exists, PAgP changes the port speed and duplex for all ports in the
bundle.
PAgP modes are off, auto, desirable, and on. Only the combinations auto-desirable, desirable-
desirable, and on-on allow the formation of a channel. The device on the other side must have
PAgP set to on if a device on one side of the channel does not support PAgP, such as a router.
Reference: http:// www.cisco.com/c/ en/us/support/docs/lan-switching/etherchannel/12023-4.html

QUESTION 65
Which statement about using EtherChannel on Cisco IOS switches is true?

A. A switch can support up to eight compatibly configured Ethernet interfaces in an EtherChannel.
The EtherChannel provides full-duplex bandwidth up to 800 Mbps only for Fast EtherChannel
or 8 Gbps only for Gigabit EtherChannel.
B. A switch can support up to 10 compatibly configured Ethernet interfaces in an EtherChannel.
The EtherChannel provides full-duplex bandwidth up to 1000 Mbps only for Fast EtherChannel
or 8 Gbps only for Gigabit EtherChannel.
C. A switch can support up to eight compatibly configured Ethernet interfaces in an EtherChannel.
The EtherChannel provides full-duplex bandwidth up to 800 Mbps only for Fast EtherChannel
or 16 Gbps only for Gigabit EtherChannel.
D. A switch can support up to 10 compatibly configured Ethernet interfaces in an EtherChannel.
The EtherChannel provides full-duplex bandwidth up to 1000 Mbps only for Fast EtherChannel
or 10 Gbps only for Gigabit EtherChannel.

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Answer: A
Explanation:
An EtherChannel consists of individual Fast Ethernet or Gigabit Ethernet links bundled into a
single logical link. The EtherChannel provides full-duplex bandwidth up to 800 Mbps (Fast
EtherChannel) or 8 Gbps (Gigabit EtherChannel) between your switch and another switch or
host. Each EtherChannel can consist of up to eight compatibly configured Ethernet interfaces. All
interfaces in each EtherChannel must be the same speed, and all must be configured as either
Layer 2 or Layer 3 interfaces.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/lan-switching/etherchannel/12023-4.html

QUESTION 66
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement about switch S1 is true?

A. Physical port Fa0/13, Fa0/14, and Fa0/15 successfully formed a Layer 2 port-channel interface
using an open standard protocol.
B. Logical port Fa0/13, Fa0/14, and Fa0/15 successfully formed a Layer 2 physical port- channel
interface using a Cisco proprietary protocol.
C. Physical port Fa0/13, Fa0/14, and Fa0/15 successfully formed a Layer 3 port-channel interface
using a Cisco proprietary protocol.
D. Logical port Fa0/13, Fa0/14, and Fa0/15 successfully formed a Layer 3 physical port- channel
interface using an open standard protocol.

Answer: A
Explanation:

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These three ports show that they are in Port Channel 1, and the (SU) means they are in use and
operating at layer 2. The protocol used for this port channel shows as LACP, which is a standards
based protocol, as opposed to PAgP, which is Cisco proprietary.

QUESTION 67
What happens on a Cisco switch that runs Cisco IOS when an RSTP-configured switch receives
802.1d BPDU?

A. 802.1d does not understand RSTP BPDUs because they are different versions, but when a RSTP
switch receives an 802.1d BPDU, it responds with a 802.1d BPDU and eventually the two
switches run 802.1d to communicate.
B. 802.1d understands RSTP BPDUs because they are the same version, but when a RSTP switch
receives a 802.1d BPDU, it responds with a 802.1d BPDU and eventually the two switches run
802.1d to communicate.
C. 802.1d does not understand RSTP BPDUs because they are different versions, but when a RSTP
switch receives a 802.1d BPDU, it does not respond with a 802.1d BPDU.
D. 802.1d understands RSTP BPDUs because they are the same version, but when a RSTP switch
receives a 802.1d BPDU, it does not respond with a 802.1d BPDU and eventually the two
switches run 802.1d to communicate.

Answer: A
Explanation:
For backward compatibility with 802.1D switches, RSTP selectively sends 802.1D configuration
BPDUs and TCN BPDUs on a per-port basis. When a port is initialized, the migrate-delay timer is
started (specifies the minimum time during which RSTP BPDUs are sent), and RSTP BPDUs are
sent. While this timer is active, the switch processes all BPDUs received on that port and ignores
the protocol type. If the switch receives an 802.1D BPDU after the port migration-delay timer has
expired, it assumes that it is connected to an 802.1D switch and starts using only 802.1D BPDUs.
However, if the RSTP switch is using 802.1D BPDUs on a port and receives an RSTP BPDU
after the timer has expired, it restarts the timer and starts using RSTP BPDUs on that port.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/ docs/switches/lan/catalyst6500/ios/12-
2SX/configuration/guide/book/spantree.html

QUESTION 68
When two MST instances (MST 1 and MST 2) are created on a switch, what is the total number
of spanning-tree instances running on the switch?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

Answer: C
Explanation:
Unlike other spanning tree protocols, in which all the spanning tree instances are independent,
MST establishes and maintains IST, CIST, and CST spanning trees:
An IST is the spanning tree that runs in an MST region.
Within each MST region, MST maintains multiple spanning tree instances. Instance 0 is a special
instance for a region, known as the IST. All other MST instances are numbered from 1 to 4094. In
the case for this question, there will be the 2 defined MST instances, and the special 0 instance,
for a total of 3 instances.
The IST is the only spanning tree instance that sends and receives BPDUs. All of the other span-

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ning tree instance information is contained in MSTP records (M-records), which are encapsu-
lated within MST BPDUs. Because the MST BPDU carries information for all instances, the
number of BPDUs that need to be processed to support multiple spanning tree instances is
signifi- cantly reduced.
All MST instances within the same region share the same protocol timers, but each MST in-
stance has its own topology parameters, such as root bridge ID, root path cost, and so forth. By
default, all VLANs are assigned to the IST.
An MST instance is local to the region; for example, MST instance 1 in region A is independent of
MST instance 1 in region B, even if regions A and B are interconnected.
A CIST is a collection of the ISTs in each MST region.
The CST interconnects the MST regions and single spanning trees.
Reference:http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/lan/catalyst6500/ios/12-
2SX/configuration/guide/book/spantree.html

QUESTION 69
Refer to the exhibit. f1/0 and f1/1 have the same end-to-end path cost to the designated bridge.
Which action is needed to modify the Layer 2 spanning-tree network so that traffic for PC1 VLAN
from switch SW3 uses switchport f1/1 as a primary port?

A. Modify the spanning-tree port-priority on SW1 f1/1 to 0 and f1/0 to 16.
B. Modify the spanning-tree port-priority on SW1 f1/1 to 16 and f1/0 to 0.
C. Modify the spanning-tree port-priority on SW2 f1/1 to 0 and f1/0 to 16.
D. Modify the spanning-tree port-priority on SW2 f1/1 to 16 and f1/0 to 0.

Answer: C
Explanation:
If a loop occurs, STP considers port priority when selecting a LAN port to put into the forwarding
state. You can assign higher priority values to LAN ports that you want STP to select first and

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value, STP puts the LAN port with the lowest LAN port number in the forwarding state and blocks
other LAN ports. The possible priority range is 0 through 240 (default 128), configurable in
increments of 16. A lower path cost represents higher-speed transmission and is preferred.
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/switches/lan/catalyst2950/software/release/12.1_9_ea1/configu
ration/guide/ swstp.html#wp1105354

QUESTION 70
Refer to the exhibit. Why would the switch be considered as a root bridge?

A. The bridge priority is 1 and all ports are forwarding.
B. The switch priority for VLAN 1 and the macro specifies "This Bridge is the root".
C. The bridge priority is 128.19 and all ports are forwarding.
D. The switch priority value is zero, it has the lowest priority value for VLAN 1.

Answer: D
Explanation:
For priority, the range is 0 to 61440 in increments of 4096; the default is 32768. The lower the
number, the more likely the switch will be chosen as the root switch.
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/switches/lan/catalyst2950/software/release/12.1_9_ea1/configu
ration/guide/swstp.html#wp1020666

QUESTION 71
A network engineer is trying to deploy a PC on a network. The engineer observes that when the
PC is connected to the network, it takes 30 to 60 seconds for the PC to see any activity on the

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network interface card. Which Layer 2 enhancement can be used to eliminate this delay?

A. Configure port duplex and speed to auto negotiation.
B. Configure port to duplex full and speed 1000.
C. Configure spanning-tree portfast.
D. Configure no switchport.

Answer: C
Explanation:
first powered on, each port goes through 4 states to ensure that there are no physical loops in the
layer 2 broadcast domain. These steps are outlined as follows. With the initial version of spanning
tree, this process could take from 30-60 seconds.
1.Blocking - A port that would cause a switching loop, no user data is sent or received but it may
go into forwarding mode if the other links in use were to fail and the spanning tree algorithm
determines the port may transition to the forwarding state. BPDU data is still received in blocking
state.
2.Listening - The switch processes BPDUs and awaits possible new information that would cause
it to return to the blocking state.
3.Learning - While the port does not yet forward frames (packets) it does learn source addresses
from frames received and adds them to the filtering database
(switching database)
4.Forwarding - A port receiving and sending data, normal operation. STP still monitors incoming
BPDUs that would indicate it should return to the blocking state to prevent a loop.
STP PortFast causes a Layer 2 LAN interface configured as an access port to enter the
forwarding state immediately, bypassing the listening and learning states.
Reference: http://net.cmed.us/Home/ethernet-and-ip/spanning-tree-protocol

QUESTION 72
Refer to the exhibit. All ports are members of VLAN 10. Considering the default cost of upstream
bridges to the root bridge is equal, which option will be the new root port for VLAN 10?

A. interface f0/13
B. interface f0/14

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C. interface f0/15
D. interface f0/21

Answer: D
Explanation:
Root Port election on each bridge Each (non-Root) bridge has exactly one Root Port, which
represents the best path to the Root Bridge. Total Path Cost to root - lowest prevails (local Root
Port cost added o upon receipt of Configuration BPDUs on that port, from the direction of Root
Bridge) Connected Bridge ID - lowest prevails o Connected Port ID (Port Priority + Port#) - lowest
prevails o Local Port ID - lowest prevails o In this case, fa0/21 has the lowest cost, so it will be the
root port.
Reference:
https://community.extremenetworks.com/extreme/topics/802_1d_spanning_tree_election_rules

QUESTION 73
A network engineer configured an Ethernet switch using these commands.

Switchone(config) # Spanning-tree portfast bpdufilter default

Which statement about the spanning-tree portfast feature on the switch is true?

A. If an interface is enabled for portfast receives BDPU, the port goes through the spanning-tree
listening, learning, and forwarding states.
B. If an interface is enabled for portfast receives BDPU, the port does not go through the spanning-
tree listening, learning, and forwarding states.
C. If an interface is enabled for portfast receives BDPU, the port is shut down immediately.
D. If an interface is enabled for portfast receives BDPU, the port goes into the spanning- tree
inconsistent state.

Answer: A
Explanation:
STP PortFast causes a Layer 2 LAN interface configured as an access port to enter the
forwarding state immediately, bypassing the listening and learning states.
However, the "Spanning-tree portfast bpdufilter default" command specifies that if a BPDU is
received on that port, then the default action of STP of listening, learning, and forwarding states
should be used.

QUESTION 74
Which statement describes what happens when a port configured with root guard receives a
superior BPDU?

A. The port goes into errdisabled state and stops forwarding traffic.
B. The port goes into BPDU-inconsistent state and stops forwarding traffic.
C. The port goes into loop-inconsistent state and stops forwarding traffic.
D. The port goes into root-inconsistent state and stops forwarding traffic.

Answer: D
Explanation:
The root guard ensures that the port on which root guard is enabled is the designated port.
Normally, root bridge ports are all designated ports, unless two or more ports of the root bridge
are connected together. If the bridge receives superior STP Bridge Protocol Data Units (BPDUs)
on a root guard-enabled port, root guard moves this port to a root-inconsistent STP state. This

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root-inconsistent state is effectively equal to a listening state. No traffic is forwarded across this
port. In this way, the root guard enforces the position of the root bridge.
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk389/tk621/technologies_tech_note09186a00800ae96b.shtml

QUESTION 75
Refer to the exhibit. An engineer has run the show EtherChannel summary command and the
output is displayed.
Which statement about the status of the EtherChannel is true?

A. The EthcrChannel is operational and configured for PAgP
B. The EttherChannel is down because of a mismatched EtherChannel protocol
C. The EttherChannel is down and configured for LACP
D. The EttherChannel is operational and is usig no EtherChannel protocol

Answer: D

QUESTION 76
Which two statements about default FHRP behavior are true? (Choose two)

A. A backup GLBP active virtual gateway can become active only if the current active virtual
gateway fails.
B. Preemption is enabled by default.
C. Unless specifically Configured, the priority of an HSRP router is 200.
D. A standby HSRP router becomes active if it has a higher priority than the priority of the current
active router.
E. A VRRP backup virtual router becomes the master router if its priority is higher than the priority
of the current master router.

Answer: AE

QUESTION 77
What is the maximum number of 10 Gigabit Ethernet connections that can be utilized in an
EtherChannel for the virtual switch link?

A. 4
B. 6
C. 8
D. 12

Answer: C
Explanation:
The VSS is made up of the following:

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Virtual switch members: Cisco Catalyst 6500 Series Switches (up to two switches with initial
release) deployed with the Virtual Switching Supervisor 720 10GE Virtual switch link (VSL): 10
Gigabit Ethernet connections (up to eight using EtherChannel) between the virtual switch
members.
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/prod/collateral/switches/ps5718/ps9336/prod_qas0900aecd806ed74
b.html

QUESTION 78
Which statement describes what happens if all VSL connections between the virtual switch
members are lost?

A. Both virtual switch members cease to forward traffic.
B. The VSS transitions to the dual active recovery mode, and both virtual switch members continue
to forward traffic independently.
C. The virtual switch members reload.
D. The VSS transitions to the dual active recovery mode, and only the new active virtual switch
continues to forward traffic.

Answer: D
Explanation:
What happens if all VSL connections between the virtual switch members are lost?
VSLs can be configured with up to eight links between the two switches across any combination
of line cards or supervisor ports to provide a high level of redundancy. If for some rare reason all
VSL connections are lost between the virtual switch members leaving both the virtual switch
members up, the VSS will transition to the dual active recovery mode. The dual active state is
detected rapidly (subsecond) by any of the following three methods:
Enhancement to PAgP used in MEC with connecting Cisco switches L3 Bidirectional Forwarding
Detection (BFD) configuration on a directly connected link (besides VSL) between virtual switch
members or through an L2 link through an access layer switch L2 Fast-Hello Dual-Active
Detection configuration on a directly connected link (besides VSL) between virtual switch
members (supported with 12.2(33)SXI) In the dual active recovery mode, all interfaces except the
VSL interfaces are in an operationally shut down state in the formerly active virtual switch
member. The new active virtual switch continues to forward traffic on all links.
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/prod/collateral/switches/ps5718/ps9336/prod_qas0900aecd806ed74
b.html

QUESTION 79
Which statement describes what happens when a switch enters dual active recovery mode?

A. The switch shuts down and waits for the VSL link to be restored before sending traffic.
B. All interfaces are shut down in the formerly active virtual switch member, but the new active
virtual switch forwards traffic on all links.
C. The switch continues to forward traffic out all links and enables spanning tree on VSL link and all
other links to prevent loops.
D. The VSS detects which system was last in active state and shuts down the other switch.

Answer: B
Explanation:
In the dual active recovery mode, all interfaces except the VSL interfaces are in an operationally
shut down state in the formerly active virtual switch member. The new active virtual switch

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continues to forward traffic on all links.
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/prod/collateral/switches/ps5718/ps9336/prod_qas0900aecd806ed74
b.html

QUESTION 80
Which command globally enables AAA on a device?

A. aaa new-model
B. aaa authentication
C. aaa authorization
D. aaa accounting

Answer: A
Explanation:
To configure AAA authentication, enable AAA by using the aaa new-model global configuration
command.
AAA features are not available for use until you enable AAA globally by issuing the aaa new-
model command.
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios/12_2/security/configuration/guide/fsecur_c/scfathen.html

QUESTION 81
Which AAA Authorization type includes PPP, SLIP, and ARAP connections?

A. network
B. IP mobile
C. EXEC
D. auth-proxy

Answer: A
Explanation:
Method lists for authorization define the ways that authorization will be performed and the
sequence in which these methods will be performed. A method list is simply a named list
describing the authorization methods to be queried (such as RADIUS or TACACS+), in
sequence. Method lists enable you to designate one or more security protocols to be used for
authorization, thus ensuring a backup system in case the initial method fails. Cisco IOS software
uses the first method listed to authorize users for specific network services; if that method fails to
respond, the Cisco IOS software selects the next method listed in the method list. This process
continues until there is successful communication with a listed authorization method, or all
methods defined are exhausted. Method lists are specific to the authorization type requested:
Auth-proxy--Applies specific security policies on a per-user basis. For detailed information on the
authentication proxy feature, refer to the chapter "Configuring Authentication Proxy" in the "Traffic
Filtering and Firewalls" part of this book.
Commands--Applies to the EXEC mode commands a user issues. Command authorization
attempts authorization for all EXEC mode commands, including global configuration commands,
associated with a specific privilege level.
EXEC--Applies to the attributes associated with a user EXEC terminal session. ·Network--Applies
to network connections. This can include a PPP, SLIP, or ARAP connection.
Reverse Access--Applies to reverse Telnet sessions.
When you create a named method list, you are defining a particular list of authorization methods
for the indicated authorization type.

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Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios/12_2/security/configuration/guide/fsecur_c/scfathor.html

QUESTION 82
Which authentication service is needed to configure 802.1x?

A. RADIUS with EAP Extension
B. TACACS+
C. RADIUS with CoA
D. RADIUS using VSA

Answer: A
Explanation:
With 802.1x, the authentication server--performs the actual authentication of the client. The
authentication server validates the identity of the client and notifies the switch whether or not the
client is authorized to access the LAN and switch services. Because the switch acts as the proxy,
the authentication service is transparent to the client. The Remote Authentication Dial-In User
Service (RADIUS) security system with Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP) extensions is
the only supported authentication server.
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/lan/catalyst2940/software/release/121_19_ea1/co
nfiguration/guide/2940scg_1/sw8021x.pdf

QUESTION 83
Refer to the exhibit. Which login credentials are required when connecting to the console port in
this output?

A. none required
B. username cisco with password cisco
C. no username with password linepass
D. login authentication default

Answer: A
Explanation:
Here the console has been configured with the NO_AUTH name, which lists none as the
authentication method. None means no authentication, meaning that credentials are not required

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and all sessions are allowed access immediately.

QUESTION 84
Refer to the exhibit. When a network administrator is attempting an SSH connection to the
device, in which order does the device check the login credentials?

A. RADIUS server, local username, line password
B. RADIUS server, line password, local username
C. Line password, local username, RADIUS server
D. Line password, RADIUS server, local username

Answer: A
Explanation:
SSH sessions use the vty lines, where the configured authentication method is named "default."
The AAA default login preference is stated in order from first to last, so here the "aaa
authentication login default group radius local line" means to use RADIUS first, then if that fails
use the local user database. Finally, if that fails use the line password.

QUESTION 85
Which type of information does the DHCP snooping binding database contain?

A. untrusted hosts with leased IP addresses
B. trusted hosts with leased IP addresses
C. untrusted hosts with available IP addresses
D. trusted hosts with available IP addresses

Answer: A
Explanation:
DHCP snooping is a security feature that acts like a firewall between untrusted hosts and trusted
DHCP servers. The DHCP snooping feature performs the following activities:
Validates DHCP messages received from untrusted sources and filters out invalid messages.
Rate-limits DHCP traffic from trusted and untrusted sources. ·Builds and maintains the DHCP
snooping binding database, which contains information about untrusted hosts with leased IP
addresses.
Utilizes the DHCP snooping binding database to validate subsequent requests from untrusted
hosts.

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Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/lan/catalyst6500/ios/12-
2SX/configuration/guide/book/snoodhcp.pdf

QUESTION 86
Which switch feature determines validity based on IP-to-MAC address bindings that are stored in
a trusted database?

A. Dynamic ARP Inspection
B. storm control
C. VTP pruning
D. DHCP snooping

Answer: A
Explanation:
Dynamic ARP inspection determines the validity of an ARP packet based on valid IP-to-MAC
address bindings stored in a trusted database, the DHCP snooping binding database. This
database is built by DHCP snooping if DHCP snooping is enabled on the VLANs and on the
switch. If the ARP packet is received on a trusted interface, the switch forwards the packet
without any checks. On untrusted interfaces, the switch forwards the packet only if it is valid.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/switches/catalyst-3750-series-
switches/72846-layer2-secftrs-catl3fixed.html

QUESTION 87
Which command is needed to enable DHCP snooping if a switchport is connected to a DHCP
server?

A. ip dhcp snooping trust
B. ip dhcp snooping
C. ip dhcp trust
D. ip dhcp snooping information

Answer: A
Explanation:
When configuring DHCP snooping, follow these guidelines:
DHCP snooping is not active until you enable the feature on at least one VLAN, and enable
DHCP globally on the switch.
Before globally enabling DHCP snooping on the switch, make sure that the devices acting as the
DHCP server and the DHCP relay agent are configured and enabled.
If a Layer 2 LAN port is connected to a DHCP server, configure the port as trusted by entering the
"ip dhcp snooping trust" interface configuration command.
If a Layer 2 LAN port is connected to a DHCP client, configure the port as untrusted by entering
the no ip dhcp snooping trust interface configuration command.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/lan/catalyst6500/ios/12-
2SX/configuration/guide/book/snoodhcp.html

QUESTION 88
When you configure private VLANs on a switch, which port type connects the switch to the
gateway router?

A. promiscuous
B. community

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C. isolated
D. trunked

Answer: A
Explanation:
There are mainly two types of ports in a Private VLAN: Promiscuous port (P-Port) and Host port.
Host port further divides in two types Isolated port (I-Port) and Community port (C-port).
Promiscuous port (P-Port):
The switch port connects to a router, firewall or other common gateway device. This port can
communicate with anything else connected to the primary or any secondary VLAN. In other
words, it is a type of a port that is allowed to send and receive frames from any other port on the
VLAN.
Host Ports:
- Isolated Port (I-Port): Connects to the regular host that resides on isolated VLAN. This port
communicates only with P-Ports.
- Community Port (C-Port): Connects to the regular host that resides on community VLAN. This
port communicates with P-Ports and ports on the same community VLAN. http://en.wikipedia.org/
wiki/Private_VLAN.

QUESTION 89
When you configure a private VLAN, which type of port must you configure the gateway router
port as?

A. promiscuous port
B. isolated port
C. community port
D. access port

Answer: A
Explanation:
There are mainly two types of ports in a Private VLAN: Promiscuous port (P-Port) and Host port.
Host port further divides in two types Isolated port (I-Port) and Community port (C-port).
Promiscuous port (P-Port):
The switch port connects to a router, firewall or other common gateway device. This port can
communicate with anything else connected to the primary or any secondary VLAN. In other
words, it is a type of a port that is allowed to send and receive frames from any other port on the
VLAN.
Host Ports:
- Isolated Port (I-Port): Connects to the regular host that resides on isolated VLAN. This port
communicates only with P-Ports.
- Community Port (C-Port): Connects to the regular host that resides on community VLAN. This
port communicates with P-Ports and ports on the same community VLAN.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Private_VLAN

QUESTION 90
Which First Hop Redundancy Protocol is an IEEE Standard?

A. GLBP
B. HSRP
C. VRRP
D. OSPF

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Answer: C
Explanation:
http://cciethebeginning.wordpress.com/2008/08/23/router-high-availability-protocol-comparison-2/

QUESTION 91
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements about SW1 are true? (Choose two)

A. InterfaceGi5/1 is using a Cisco proprietary trunking protocol
B. On Interface Gi5/1, all untagged traffic is tagged with VLAN 113
C. The device is configured with the default MST region
D. Interface Gi5/1 is using an industry-standard trunking protocol
E. Interface Gi6/2 is the root port for VLAN 36
F. On interface Gi6/2, all untagged traffic is tagged with VLAN 600

Answer: DF

QUESTION 92
Refer to the exhibit. Which two commands ensure that DSW1 becomes root bridge for VLAN 10
and 20? (Choose two.)

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A. spanning-tree mstp 1 priority 0
B. spanning-tree mst1 root primary
C. spanning-tree mst vlan 10,20 priority root
D. spanning-tree mst1 priority 4096
E. spanning-tree mst1 priority 1
F. spanning-tree mstp vlan 10,20 root primary

Answer: BD

QUESTION 93
Which gateway role is responsible for answering ARP requests for the virtual IP address in
GLBP?

A. active virtual forwarder
B. active virtual router
C. active virtual gateway
D. designated router

Answer: C
Explanation:
GLBP Active Virtual Gateway Members of a GLBP group elect one gateway to be the active
virtual gateway (AVG) for that group. Other group members provide backup for the AVG in the
event that the AVG becomes unavailable. The AVG assigns a virtual MAC address to each
member of the GLBP group. Each gateway assumes responsibility for forwarding packets sent to
the virtual MAC address assigned to it by the AVG. These gateways are known as active virtual
forwarders (AVFs) for their virtual MAC address. The AVG is responsible for answering Address
Resolution Protocol (ARP) requests for the virtual IP address. Load sharing is achieved by the
AVG replying to the ARP requests with different virtual MAC addresses.
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/ios/12_2t/12_2t15/feature/guide/ft_glbp.html

QUESTION 94
Which VRRP router is responsible for forwarding packets that are sent to the IP addresses of the
virtual router?

A. virtual router master
B. virtual router backup
C. virtual router active
D. virtual router standby

Answer: A
Explanation:
VRRP Definitions
VRRP Router A router running the Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol. It may participate in one
or more virtual routers.
Virtual Router An abstract object managed by VRRP that acts as a default router for hosts on a
shared LAN. It consists of a Virtual Router Identifier and a set of associated IP address(es)
across a common LAN. A VRRP Router may backup one or more virtual routers.
IP Address Owner The VRRP router that has the virtual router's IP address(es) as real interface
address (es). This is the router that, when up, will respond to packets addressed to one of these
IP addresses for ICMP pings, TCP connections, etc. Primary IP Address An IP address selected
from the set of real interface addresses. One possible selection algorithm is to always select the

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first address. VRRP advertisements are always sent using the primary IP address as the source
of the IP packet.
Virtual Router Master The VRRP router that is assuming the responsibility of forwarding packets
sent to the IP address(es) associated with the virtual router, and answering ARP requests for
these IP addresses.
Note that if the IP address owner is available, then it will always become the Master.
http://www.ietf.org/rfc/rfc3768.txt

QUESTION 95
Which command correctly configures standby tracking for group 1 using the default decrement
priority value?

A. standby 1 track 100
B. standby 1 track 100 decrement 1
C. standby 1 track 100 decrement 5
D. standby 1 track 100 decrement 20

Answer: A
Explanation:
The default decrement value for HSRP standby tracking is 10. There is no need to explicitly state
the value if the desired value is the default value.

QUESTION 96
Which command configures an HSRP group to become a slave of another HSRP group?

A. standby slave
B. standby group track
C. standby follow
D. standby group backup

Answer: C
Explanation:
Perform this task to configure multiple HSRP client groups. The "standby follow" command
configures an HSRP group to become a slave of another HSRP group.
HSRP client groups follow the master HSRP with a slight, random delay so that all client groups
do not change at the same time.
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/ios-xml/ios/ipapp_fhrp/configuration/15-mt/fhp-hsrp-mgo.html

QUESTION 97
Refer to the exhibit. Which option describes the reason for this message in a GLBP
configuration?

A. Unavailable GLBP active forwarder
B. Incorrect GLBP IP address
C. HSRP configured on same interface as GLBP
D. Layer 2 loop

Answer: D

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Explanation:
This section provides information you can use to troubleshoot your configuration.
%GLBP-4-DUPADDR: Duplicate address The error message indicates a possible layer2 loop and
STP configuration issues. In order to resolve this issue, issue the show interface command to
verify the MAC address of the interface. If the MAC address of the interface is the same as the
one reported in the error message, then it indicates that this router is receiving its own hello
packets sent. Verify the spanning-tree topology and check if there is any layer2 loop. If the
interface MAC address is different from the one reported in the error message, then some other
device with a MAC address reports this error message.
Note: GLBP members communicate between each other through hello messages sent every 3
seconds to the multicast address 224.0.0.102 and User Datagram
Protocol (UDP) port 3222 (source and destination). When configuring the multicast boundary
command, permit the Multicast address by permit 224.0.0.0
15.255.255.255.
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/products/hw/switches/ps708/products_configuration_example09186
a00807d2520.shtml#dr

QUESTION 98
Lab Simulation - LACP with STP Sim

You work for SWITCH.com. They have just added a new switch (SwitchB) to the existing network
as shown in the topology diagram.

RouterA is currently configured correctly and is providing the routing function for devices on
SwitchA and SwitchB. SwitchA is currently configured correctly, but will need to be modified to
support the addition of SwitchB. SwitchB has a minimal configuration. You have been tasked with
competing the needed configuring of SwitchA and SwitchB. SwitchA and SwitchB use Cisco as
the enable password.

Configuration Requirements for SwitchA
The VTP and STP configuration modes on SwitchA should not be modified.

- SwitchA needs to be the root switch for vlans 11, 12, 13, 21, 22 and
23. All other vlans should be left are their default values.

Configuration Requirements for SwitchB

- Vlan 21
Name: Marketing
will support two servers attached to fa0/9 and fa0/10

- Vlan 22
Name: Sales
will support two servers attached to fa0/13 and fa0/14

- Vlan 23
Name: Engineering
will support two servers attached to fa0/15 and fa0/16

- Access ports that connect to server should transition immediately to
forwarding state upon detecting the connection of a device.
- SwitchB VTP mode needs to be the same as SwitchA.
- SwitchB must operate in the same spanning tree mode as SwitchA
- No routing is to be configured on SwitchB

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- Only the SVI vlan 1 is to be configured and it is to use address
192.168.1.11/24

Inter-switch Connectivity Configuration Requirements

- For operational and security reasons trunking should be unconditional
and Vlans 1, 21, 22 and 23 should tagged when traversing the trunk
link.
- The two trunks between SwitchA and SwitchB need to be configured in a
mode that allows for the maximum use of their bandwidth for all vlans.
This mode should be done with a non-proprietary protocol, with SwitchA
controlling activation.
- Propagation of unnecessary broadcasts should be limited using manual
pruning on this trunk link.

Answer:

SW-A (close to router)
SW-A#configure terminal

SW-A(config)#spanning-tree vlan 11-13,21-23 root primary

SW-A(config)#vlan 21
SW-A(config-vlan)#name Marketing
SW-A(config-vlan)#exit

SW-A(config)#vlan 22
SW-A(config-vlan)#name Sales
SW-A(config-vlan)#exit

SW-A(config)#vlan 23
SW-A(config-vlan)#name Engineering
SW-A(config-vlan)#exit
SW-A(config)#interface range Fa0/3 – 4
SW-A(config-if-range)#no switchport mode access
SW-A(config-if-range)#no switchport access vlan 98 (These two commands must

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be deleted to form a trunking link)
SW-A(config-if-range)#switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q (cannot issued
this command on this switch, but don‘t worry coz I still got 100%)
SW-A(config-if-range)#switchport mode trunk
SW-A(config-if-range)#switchport trunk native vlan 99
SW-A(config-if-range)#switchport trunk allowed vlan 1,21-23
SW-A(config-if-range)#channel-group 1 mode active
SW-A(config-if-range)#channel-protocol lacp
SW-A(config-if-range)#no shutdown
SW-A(config-if-range)#end

SW-B (far from router)
SW-B#configure terminal

SW-B(config)#vlan 21
SW-B(config-vlan)#name Marketing
SW-B(config-vlan)#exit

SW-B(config)#vlan 22
SW-B(config-vlan)#name Sales
SW-B(config-vlan)#exit

SW-B(config)#vlan 23
SW-B(config-vlan)#name Engineering
SW-B(config-vlan)#exit
SW-B(config)#vlan 99
SW-B(config-vlan)#name TrunkNative // not necessary to name it but just name it
same as SwitchA
SW-B(config-vlan)#exit
SW-B(config)#interface range Fa0/9 – 10
SW-B(config-if-range)#switchport mode access
SW-B(config-if-range)#switchport access vlan 21
SW-B(config-if-range)#spanning-tree portfast
SW-B(config-if-range)#no shutdown
SW-B(config-if-range)#exit

SW-B(config)#interface range Fa0/13 – 14
SW-B(config-if-range)#switchport mode access
SW-B(config-if-range)#switchport access vlan 22
SW-B(config-if-range)#spanning-tree portfast
SW-B(config-if-range)#no shutdown
SW-B(config-if-range)#exit

SW-B(config)#interface range Fa0/15 – 16
SW-B(config-if-range)#switchport mode access
SW-B(config-if-range)#switchport access vlan 23
SW-B(config-if-range)#spanning-tree portfast
SW-B(config-if-range)#no shutdown
SW-B(config-if-range)#exit

SW-B(config)#vtp mode transparent

SW-B(config)#spanning-tree mode rapid-pvst

SW-B(config)#ip default-gateway 192.168.1.1 (you can get this IP from SW-A with

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command show cdp neighbour detail) // not sure about this command because the question says
“No routing is to be configured on SwitchB”.

SW-B(config)#interface vlan 1
SW-B(config-if)#ip address 192.168.1.11 255.255.255.0
SW-B(config-if)#no shutdown
SW-B(config-if)#exit

SW-B(config)#interface range Fa0/3 – 4
SW-B(config-if-range)#switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q (yes I can issued
this command on this switch)
SW-B(config-if-range)#switchport mode trunk
SW-B(config-if-range)#switchport trunk native vlan 99
SW-B(config-if-range)#switchport trunk allowed vlan 1,21-23
SW-B(config-if-range)#channel-group 1 mode passive //mode passive because
“SwitchA controlling activation”
SW-B(config-if-range)#channel-protocol lacp
SW-B(config-if-range)#no shutdown
SW-B(config-if-range)#end

Some guidelines for configuring SwitchA & SwitchB:

Configuration Requirements for SwitchA

- The VTP and STP configuration modes on SwitchA SW-A(config)#spanning-tree vlan
should not be modified. 11-13,21-23 root primary
– SwitchA needs to be the root switch for vlans 11,
12, 13, 21, 22 and 23. All other vlans should be left
are their default values

Configuration Requirements for SwitchB

- Vlan 21, Name: Marketing, will support two servers vlan …
attached to fa0/9 and fa0/10 name …
– Vlan 22, Name: Sales, will support two servers attached (VLANs must be created on
to fa0/13 and fa0/14 both switches if not exist)
– Vlan 23, Name: Engineering, will support two servers interface range Fa0/x – x
attached to fa0/15 and fa0/16 switchport mode access
– Access ports that connect to server should transition switchport access vlan
immediately to forwarding state upon detecting the spanning-tree portfast
connection of a device.

- SwitchB VTP mode needs to be the same as SwitchA. vtp mode transparent

- SwitchB must operate in the same spanning tree mode spanning-tree mode rapid-
as SwitchA. pvst

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- No routing is to be configured on SwitchB. interface vlan 1
– Only the SVI vlan 1 is to be configured and it is to use ip address 192.168.1.11
address 192.168.1.11/24. 255.255.255.0

Inter-switch Connectivity Configuration Requirements:

- For operational and security reasons SW-A(config)#interface range Fa0/3 – 4
trunking should be unconditional and Vlans SW-A(config-if)#no switchport mode access
1, 21, 22 and 23 should tagged when SW-A(config-if)#no switchport access vlan
traversing the trunk link. 98 //These two commands must be deleted
to form a trunking link.
SW-A(config-if)#switchport mode trunk
SW-A(config-if)#switchport trunk native
vlan 99
—————————————
SW-B(config)#interface range Fa0/3 – 4
SW-B(config-if)#switchport trunk
encapsulation dot1q (yes I can issued this
command on this switch)
SW-B(config-if)#switchport mode trunk
SW-B(config-if)#switchport trunk native
vlan 99

- The two trunks between SwitchA and SW-A(config)#interface range Fa0/3 – 4
SwitchB need to be configured in a mode SW-A(config-if)#channel-group 1 mode
that allows for the maximum use of their active
bandwidth for all vlans. This mode should SW-A(config-if)#channel-protocol lacp
be done with a non-proprietary protocol, SW-A(config-if)#no shutdown
with SwitchA controlling activation. —————————————
SW-B(config)#interface range Fa0/3 – 4
SW-B(config-if)#channel-group 1 mode
passive
SW-B(config-if)#channel-protocol lacp
SW-B(config-if)#no shutdown
—————————————
Maybe the interface Port-channel 1 was
configured on both switches so we don’t
configure it here. If not we have to
configure them with “interface port-channel
1″ command. Also you have to turn them
up.

- Propagation of unnecessary broadcasts SW-A(config)#interface range Fa0/3 – 4
should be limited using manual pruning on SW-A(config-if)#switchport trunk allowed
this trunk link. vlan 1,21-23
—————————————
SW-B(config)#interface range Fa0/3 – 4

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SW-B(config-if)#switchport trunk allowed
vlan 1,21-23

You may have to configure Interface Port-Channel on both switches. Check the configuration first,
if it does not exist, use these commands:

interface port-channel1
switchport mode trunk
switchport trunk native vlan 99 //this command will prevent the “Native VLAN
mismatched” error on both switches
switchport trunk allowed vlan 1,21-23,99

Some notes for this sim:
+ You should check the initial status of both switches with these commands: show vtp status
(transparent mode on switchA and we have to set the same mode on switchB), show spanning-
tree [summary] (rapid-pvst mode on switchA and we have to set the same mode on switchB),
show vlan (check the native vlan and the existence of vlan99), show etherchannel 1 port-
channel and show ip int brief (check if Port-channel 1 has been created and make sure it is up),
show run (to check everything again).
+ When using “int range f0/x - y” command hit space bar before and after “-“ otherwise the
simulator does not accept it.
+ You must create vlan 99 for the switchB. SwitchA already have vlan 99 configured.
+ At the end, you can try to ping from SwitchB to RouterA (you can get the IP on RouterA via the
show cdp neighbors detail on SwitchA), not sure if it can ping or not. If not, you can use the “ip
default-gateway 192.168.1.1” on SwitchB.
+ The name of SwitchA and SwitchB can be swapped or changed so be careful to put your
configuration into appropriate switch.

QUESTION 99
Lab Simulation - AAA dot1x

SWITCH.com is an IT company that has an existing enterprise network comprised of two layer 2
only switches; DSW1 and ASW1. The topology diagram indicates their layer 2 mapping. VLAN 20
is a new VLAN that will be used to provide the shipping personnel access to the server.
Corporate polices do not allow layer 3 functionality to be enabled on the switches.
For security reasons, it is necessary to restrict access to VLAN 20 in the following manner:

- Users connecting to VLAN 20 via portfO/1 on ASW1 must be
authenticated before they are given access to the network.
Authentication is to be done via a Radius server:
- Radius server host: 172.120.40.46
- Radius key: rad123
- Authentication should be implemented as close to the host as
possible.
- Devices on VLAN 20 are restricted to the subnet of 172.120.40.0/24.
- Packets from devices in the subnet of 172.120.40.0/24 should be
allowed on VLAN 20.
- Packets from devices in any other address range should be dropped on
VLAN 20.
- Filtering should be implemented as close to the serverfarm as
possible.

The Radius server and application servers will be installed at a future date. You have been

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tasked with implementing the above access control as a pre-condition to installing the servers.
You must use the available IOS switch features.

Answer:

1. Verification of Pre-configuration:
a. Check that the denoted vlan [vlan20] is created in both switches and ports [fa0/1 of ASW1] are
assigned.
b. Take down the radius-server ip [172.120.39.46] and the key [rad123].
c. Take down the IP range [172.120.40.0/24] to be allowed the given vlan [vlan20]
2. Configure the Port based authentication on ASW1:
Enable AAA on the switch:

ASW1> enable
ASW1# conf t
ASW1(config)# aaa new-model

The new-model keyword refers to the use of method lists, by which authentication methods and
sources can be grouped or organized. Define the server along with its secret shared password:

ASW1(config)# aaa authentication dot1x default group radius
ASW1(config)# radius-server host 172.120.39.46 key rad123

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This command causes the RADIUS server defined on the switch to be used for 802.1x
authentication.
Enable 802.1x on the switch:

ASW1(config)# dot1x system-auth-control

Configure Fa0/1 to use 802.1x:

ASW1(config)# interface fastEthernet 0/1
ASW1(config-if)# switchport mode access
ASW1(config-if)# dot1x port-control auto

Notice that the word “auto” will force connected PC to authenticate through the 802.1x exchange.

ASW1(config-if)# exit
ASW1# copy running-config startup-config

3. Filter the traffic and create vlan access-map to restrict the traffic only for a range on
DSW1
Define an access-list:

DSW1> enable
DSW1# conf t
DSW1(config)# ip access-list standard 10 (syntax: ip access-list {standard |
extended} acl-name)
DSW1(config-ext-nacl)# permit 172.120.40.0 0.0.0.255
DSW1(config-ext-nacl)# exit

Define an access-map which uses the access-list above:

DSW1(config)# vlan access-map MYACCMAP 10 (syntax: vlan access-map map_name
[0-65535] )
DSW1(config-access-map)# match ip address 10 (syntax: match ip address
{acl_number | acl_name})
DSW1(config-access-map)# action forward
DSW1(config-access-map)# exit
DSW1(config)# vlan access-map MYACCMAP 20
DSW1(config-access-map)# action drop (drop other networks)
DSW1(config-access-map)# exit

Apply a vlan-map into a vlan:

DSW1(config)# vlan filter MYACCMAP vlan-list 20 (syntax: vlan filter mapname
vlan-list list)
DSW1# copy running-config startup-config

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4. Note:
It is not possible to verify the configuration in this lab. All we have do the correct configurations.
Most of the exam takers report that “copy running-config startup-config” is not working. It does not
a matter.

Do not try unwanted/wrong commands in the consoles. They are not real switches.

QUESTION 100
Hotspot - HSRP
Ferris Plastics, Inc. is a medium sized company, with an enterprise network (access, distribution
and core switches) that provides LAN connectivity from user PCs to corporate servers. The
distribution switches are configured to use HSRPto provide a high availability solution.

- DSW1 -primary device for VLAN 101 VLAN 102 andVLAN 105
- DSW2 - primary device for VLAN 103 and VLAN 104
- A failure of GigabitEthemet1/0/1 on primary device should cause the
primary device to release its status as the primary device, unless
GigabitEthernet1/0/1 on backup device has also failed.

Troubleshooting has identified several issues. Currently all interfaces are up. Using the running
configurations and show commands, you have been asked to investigate and respond to the
following question.

During routine maintenance, GigabitEthernet1/0/1 on DSW1 was shut down. All other interfaces
were up. DSW2 became the active HSRP device for VLAN 101 as desired. However, after
GigabitEthemet1/0/1 on DSW1 was reactivated, DSW1 did not become the active router for
VLAN 101 as desired. What needs to be done to make the group for VLAN 101 function properly?

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A. Enable preempt in the VLAN 101 HSRP group on DSW1.
B. Disable preempt in the VLAN 101 HSRP group on DSW2's.
C. In the VLAN 101 HSRP group on DSW1, decrease the priority value to avaluethatis less ' than the
priority value configured in the VLAN 101 HSRP group on DSW2.
D. Decrease the decrement value in the track command for the VLAN 101 HSRP group on U
DSWTs to a values less than the value in the track command for the VLAN 101 HSRP group on
DSW2.

Answer: A
Explanation:

A is correct. All other answers is incorrect. Because Vlan101 on DS1 ( left ) disable preempt. We
need enable preempt to after it reactive, it will be active device. If not this command, it never
become active device.

QUESTION 101
Hotspot - HSRP
Ferris Plastics, Inc. is a medium sized company, with an enterprise network (access, distribution
and core switches) that provides LAN connectivity from user PCs to corporate servers. The
distribution switches are configured to use HSRPto provide a high availability solution.

- DSW1 -primary device for VLAN 101 VLAN 102 andVLAN 105
- DSW2 - primary device for VLAN 103 and VLAN 104
- A failure of GigabitEthemet1/0/1 on primary device should cause the
primary device to release its status as the primary device, unless
GigabitEthernet1/0/1 on backup device has also failed.

Troubleshooting has identified several issues. Currently all interfaces are up. Using the running
configurations and show commands, you have been asked to investigate and respond to the
following question.

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During routine maintenance, it became necessary to shut down the GigabitEthernet1/0/1 interface
on DSW1. All other interfaces were up. During this time, DSW1 remained the active device for the
VLAN 102 HSRP group. You have determined that there is an issue with the decrement value in
the track command for the VLAN 102 HSRP group. What needs to be done to make the group
function properly?

A. The decrement value on DSW1 should be greaterthan 5 and less than 15. 0
B. The decrement value on DSW1 should be greaterthan 9 and less than 15.
C. The decrement value on DSW1 should be greaterthan 11 and less than 19.
D. The decrement value on DSWTs should be greaterthan 190 and less than 200.
E. The decrement value on DSWTs should be greaterthan 195 and less than 205.

Answer: C
Explanation:

Use "show run" command to show. The left Vlan102 is console1 of DS1. Priority value is 200, we
should decrement value in the track command from 11 to 18. Because 200 - 11 = 189 < 190
( priority of Vlan102 on DS2 ).

QUESTION 102
Hotspot - HSRP
Ferris Plastics, Inc. is a medium sized company, with an enterprise network (access, distribution

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and core switches) that provides LAN connectivity from user PCs to corporate servers. The
distribution switches are configured to use HSRPto provide a high availability solution.

- DSW1 -primary device for VLAN 101 VLAN 102 andVLAN 105
- DSW2 - primary device for VLAN 103 and VLAN 104
- A failure of GigabitEthemet1/0/1 on primary device should cause the
primary device to release its status as the primary device, unless
GigabitEthernet1/0/1 on backup device has also failed.

Troubleshooting has identified several issues. Currently all interfaces are up. Using the running
configurations and show commands, you have been asked to investigate and respond to the
following question.

All interfaces are active. DSW2 has not become the active device for the VLAN 103 HSRP group.
As related to the VLAN 103 HSRP group, what can be done to make the group function properly?

A. On DSW1, disable preempt.
B. On DSW1, decrease the priority value to a value less than 190 and greater than 150.
C. On DSW2, increase the priority value to a value greater 200 and less than 250.
D. On DSW2, increase the decrement value in the track command to a value greater than 10 and
less than 50.

Answer: C
Explanation:
From the output shown below of the HSRP status of DSW2, we see that the active router has a
priority of 200, while the local priority is 190. We need to increase the priority of DSW2 to greater
than 200, but it should be less than 250 so that if the gig 1/0/1 interface goes down, DSW1 will
become active. DSW2 is configured to decrement the priority by 50 if this interface goes down, so
the correct answer is to increase the priority to more than 200, but less than 250.

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QUESTION 103
Hotspot - HSRP
Ferris Plastics, Inc. is a medium sized company, with an enterprise network (access, distribution
and core switches) that provides LAN connectivity from user PCs to corporate servers. The
distribution switches are configured to use HSRPto provide a high availability solution.

- DSW1 -primary device for VLAN 101 VLAN 102 andVLAN 105
- DSW2 - primary device for VLAN 103 and VLAN 104
- A failure of GigabitEthemet1/0/1 on primary device should cause the
primary device to release its status as the primary device, unless
GigabitEthernet1/0/1 on backup device has also failed.

Troubleshooting has identified several issues. Currently all interfaces are up. Using the running
configurations and show commands, you have been asked to investigate and respond to the
following question.

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During routine maintenance, it became necessary to shut down the GigabitEthernet1/0/1 interface
on DSW1 and DSW2. All other interfaces were up. During this time, DSW1 became the active
router for the VLAN 104HSRP group. As related to the VLAN 104HSRP group, what can to be
done to make the group function properly?

A. On DSW1, disable preempt.
B. On DSW2, decrease the priority value to a value less than 150.
C. On DSW1, increase the decrement value in the track command to a value greater than 6.
D. On DSW1, decrease the decrement value in the track command to a value less than 1.

Answer: C
Explanation:

We should NOT disable preempt on DS1. By do that, you will make Vlan104's HSRP group fail
function.
Example: if we are disable preempt on DS1. It can not become active device when G1/0/1 on
DS2 fail. In this question, G0/1/0 on DS1 & DS2 is shutdown. Vlan104 (left) : 150 -1 = 149.
Vlan104 (right) : 200 -155 = 145. Result is priority 149 > 145 ( Vlan104 on DS1 is active). If
increase the decrement in the track value to a value greater than 6 ( > or = 6). Vlan104 (left) : 150
-6 = 144. Result is priority 144 < 145 ( vlan104 on DS2 is active).

QUESTION 104

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Hotspot - HSRP
Ferris Plastics, Inc. is a medium sized company, with an enterprise network (access, distribution
and core switches) that provides LAN connectivity from user PCs to corporate servers. The
distribution switches are configured to use HSRPto provide a high availability solution.

- DSW1 -primary device for VLAN 101 VLAN 102 andVLAN 105
- DSW2 - primary device for VLAN 103 and VLAN 104
- A failure of GigabitEthemet1/0/1 on primary device should cause the
primary device to release its status as the primary device, unless
GigabitEthernet1/0/1 on backup device has also failed.

Troubleshooting has identified several issues. Currently all interfaces are up. Using the running
configurations and show commands, you have been asked to investigate and respond to the
following question.

What is the priority value of the VLAN 105 HSRP group on DSW2?

A. 50
B. 100
C. 150
D. 200

Answer: B
Explanation:
Use "show stantby brieft" command on console2. Very easy to see priority of Vlan105 is 100.

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QUESTION 105
Hotspot - HSRP
Ferris Plastics, Inc. is a medium sized company, with an enterprise network (access, distribution
and core switches) that provides LAN connectivity from user PCs to corporate servers. The
distribution switches are configured to use HSRPto provide a high availability solution.

- DSW1 -primary device for VLAN 101 VLAN 102 andVLAN 105
- DSW2 - primary device for VLAN 103 and VLAN 104
- A failure of GigabitEthemet1/0/1 on primary device should cause the
primary device to release its status as the primary device, unless
GigabitEthernet1/0/1 on backup device has also failed.

Troubleshooting has identified several issues. Currently all interfaces are up. Using the running
configurations and show commands, you have been asked to investigate and respond to the
following question.

If GigabitEthemet1/0/1 on DSW2 is shutdown, what will be the resulting priority value of the VLAN

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105 HSRP group on router DSW2?

A. 90
B. 100
C. 150
D. 200

Answer: A
Explanation:
As seen below, the current priority for VLAN 105 is 100, and the tracking feature for Gig 1/0/0 is
enabled which will decrement the priority by 10 if this interface goes down for a priority value of
90.

QUESTION 106
Lab Simulation - MLS and EIGRP
You have been tasked with configuring multilayer SwitchC, which has a partial configuration and
has been attached to RouterC as shown in the topology diagram.
You need to configure SwitchC so that Hosts H1 and H2 can successfully ping the server S1.
Also SwitchC needs to be able to ping server S1.
Due to administrative restrictions and requirements you should not add/delete vlans or create
trunk links. Company policies forbid the use of static or default routing. All routes must be learned
via EIGRP 65010 routing protocol.
You do not have access to RouteC. RouterC is correctly configured. No trunking has been
configured on RouterC.
Routed interfaces should use the lowest host on a subnet when possible. The following subnets
are available to implement this solution:

- 10.10.10.0/24
- 190.200.250.32/27
- 190.200.250.64/27

Hosts H1 and H2 are configured with the correct IP address and default gateway.
SwitchC uses Cisco as the enable password.
Routing must only be enabled for the specific subnets shown in the diagram.
Note: Due to administrative restrictions and requirements you should not add or delete VLANs,
changes VLAN port assignments or create trunks. Company policies forbid the use of static or

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default routing. All routes must be learned via the EIGRP routing protocol.

Answer:
In real life, there are two ways to configure interVLAN routing in this case:

+ Use RouterC as a “router on a stick” and SwitchC as a pure Layer2 switch. Trunking must be
established between RouterC and SwitchC.
+ Only use SwitchC for interVLAN routing without using RouterC, SwitchC should be configured
as a Layer 3 switch (which supports ip routing function as a router). No trunking requires.

The question clearly states “No trunking has been configured on RouterC” so RouterC does not
contribute to interVLAN routing of hosts H1 & H2 -> SwitchC must be configured as a Layer 3
switch with SVIs for interVLAN routing.

We should check the default gateways on H1 & H2. Click on H1 and H2 and type the “ipconfig”
command to get their default gateways.

C:\>ipconfig

We will get the default gateways as follows:

Host1:
+ Default gateway: 190.200.250.33

Host2:
+ Default gateway: 190.200.250.65

Now we have enough information to configure SwitchC (notice the EIGRP AS in this case is 650)

Note: VLAN2 and VLAN3 were created and gi0/10, gi0/11 interfaces were configured as access
ports so we don’t need to configure them in this sim.

SwitchC# configure terminal
SwitchC(config)# int gi0/1

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SwitchC(config-if)#no switchport -> without using this command, the simulator does
not let you assign IP address on Gi0/1 interface.
SwitchC(config-if)# ip address 10.10.10.2 255.255.255.0 ->RouterC has used
IP 10.10.10.1 so this is the lowest usable IP address.
SwitchC(config-if)# no shutdown
SwitchC(config-if)# exit
SwitchC(config)# int vlan 2
SwitchC(config-if)# ip address 190.200.250.33 255.255.255.224
SwitchC(config-if)# no shutdown
SwitchC(config-if)# int vlan 3
SwitchC(config-if)# ip address 190.200.250.65 255.255.255.224
SwitchC(config-if)# no shutdown
SwitchC(config-if)#exit
SwitchC(config)# ip routing (Notice: MLS will not work without this command)
SwitchC(config)# router eigrp 650
SwitchC(config-router)# network 10.10.10.0 0.0.0.255
SwitchC(config-router)# network 190.200.250.32 0.0.0.31
SwitchC(config-router)# network 190.200.250.64 0.0.0.31

NOTE: THE ROUTER IS CORRECTLY CONFIGURED, so you will not miss within it in the
exam , also don’t modify/delete any port just do the above configuration. Also some reports said
the “no auto-summary” command can’t be used in the simulator, in fact it is not necessary
because the network 190.200.0.0/16 is not used anywhere else in this topology.

In order to complete the lab , you should expect the ping to SERVER to succeed from the MLS ,
and from the PCs as well.

Also make sure you use the correct EIGRP AS number (in the configuration above it is 650 but it
will change when you take the exam) but we are not allowed to access RouterC so the only way
to find out the EIGRP AS is to look at the exhibit above. If you use wrong AS number, no
neighbor relationship is formed between RouterC and SwitchC.

In fact, we are pretty sure instead of using two commands “network 190.200.250.32 0.0.0.31” and
“network 190.200.250.64 0.0.0.31” we can use one simple command “network 190.200.0.0”
because it is the nature of distance vector routing protocol like EIGRP: only major networks need
to be advertised; even without “no auto-summary” command the network still works correctly. But
in the exam the sim is just a flash based simulator so we should use two above commands, just
for sure. But after finishing the configuration, we can use “show run” command to verify, only the
summarized network 190.200.0.0 is shown.

QUESTION 107
Your customer has asked you to come in and verify the operation of routers R1 and R2 which are
configured to use HSRP. They have questions about how these two devices will perform in the
event of a device failure.

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What percentage of the outgoing traffic from the 172.16.10.0/24 subnet is being forwarded
through R1?

A. R1-0%
B. R1-50 %, R2-50%
C. R2-100%
D. R1-100%

Answer: D
Explanation:
Based on the following output, we see that R1 is the active standby router for the Ethernet 0/0
link, so all outgoing traffic will be forwarded to R1.

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QUESTION 108
Your customer has asked you to come in and verify the operation of routers R1 and R2 which are
configured to use HSRP. They have questions about how these two devices will perform in the
event of a device failure.

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Refer to the exhibit. If router R1 interface Etherne0/0 goes down and recovers, which of the
statement regarding HSRP priority is true?

A. The interface will have the priority decremented by 40 for HSRP group 1.
B. The interface will have the priority decremented by 60 for HSRP group 1
C. The interface will have its current priority incremented by 40 for HSRP group 1
D. The interface will have its current priority incremented by 60 for HSRP group 1
E. The interface will default to the a priority of 100 for HSRP group 1

Answer: C
Explanation:
Here is the HSRP configuration seen on R1:

Here, when the Ethernet 0/0 interface goes down, the standby 1 track decrement command will
lower the priority from 130 to 90. However, when it comes back up, it will then increment it by 40
back to 130 for HSRP group 1.

QUESTION 109
Your customer has asked you to come in and verify the operation of routers R1 and R2 which are
configured to use HSRP. They have questions about how these two devices will perform in the
event of a device failure.

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What issue is causing Router R1 and R2 to both be displayed as the HSRP active router for
group 2?

A. The HSRP group number mismatch
B. The HSRP group authentication is misconfigured
C. The HSRP Hello packets are blocked
D. The HSRP timers mismatch
E. The HSRP group priorities are different

Answer: B
Explanation:
Based on the configuration output, we see that authentication is configured on R2, but not on R1:

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This can be further verified by issuing the "show standby" command on each router.

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QUESTION 110
Your customer has asked you to come in and verify the operation of routers R1 and R2 which are

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configured to use HSRP. They have questions about how these two devices will perform in the
event of a device failure.

What is the virtual mac-address of HSRP group 1?

A. 0000.0c07.ac02
B. 4000.0000.0010
C. 0000.0c07.ac01
D. 4000.0000.ac01
E. 4000.0000.ac02
F. 0000.0c07.0010

Answer: B
Explanation:
Issuing the "show standby" command on either router shows us that the virtual MAC used by
HSRP group 1 is 4000.0000.0010.

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QUESTION 111
You have been asked to install and configure a new switch in a customer network. Use the
console access to the existing and new switches to configure and verify correct device
configuration.

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You are connecting the New_Switch to the LAN topology; the switch has been partially configured
and you need to complete the rest of configuration to enable PC1 communication with PC2.
Which of the configuration is correct?

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A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
E. Option E

Answer: D
Explanation:
Within any VTP, the VTP domain name must match. So, step one is to find the correct VTP name
on the other switches. Logging in to SW1 and using the "show vtp status" command we see this:

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So we know that the VTP domain must be CCNP. This leaves only choice D and
E. We also see from the topology diagram that eth 0/0 of the new switch connects to a PC in
VLNA 100, so we know that this port must be an access port in VLAN 100, leaving only choice D
as correct. Note that the VTP versions supported in this network are 1, 2, 3 so either VTP version
2 or 3 can be configured on the new switch.

QUESTION 112
You have been asked to install and configure a new switch in a customer network. Use the
console access to the existing and new switches to configure and verify correct device
configuration.

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Refer to the configuration. For which configured VLAN are untagged frames sent over trunk
between SW1 and SW2?

A. VLAN1
B. VLAN 99
C. VLAN 999
D. VLAN 40
E. VLAN 50
F. VLAN 200
G. VLAN 300

Answer: B
Explanation:
The native VLAN is used for untagged frames sent along a trunk. By issuing the "show interface
trunk" command on SW1 and SW2 we see the native VLAN is 99.

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QUESTION 113
You have been asked to install and configure a new switch in a customer network. Use the
console access to the existing and new switches to configure and verify correct device
configuration.

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You are adding new VLANs. VLAN500 and VLAN600 to the topology in such way that you need
to configure SW1 as primary root for VLAN 500 and secondary for VLAN 600 and SW2 as
primary root for VLAN 600 and secondary for VLAN 500. Which configuration step is valid?

A. Configure VLAN 500 & VLAN 600 on both SW1 & SW2
B. Configure VLAN 500 and VLAN 600 on SW1 only
C. Configure VLAN 500 and VLAN 600 on SW2 only
D. Configure VLAN 500 and VLAN 600 on SW1 ,SW2 and SW4
E. On SW2; configure vtp mode as off and configure VLAN 500 and VLAN 600; configure back to
vtp server mode.

Answer: A
Explanation:
By issuing the "show vtp status command on SW2, SW2, and SW4 we see that both SW1 and
SW2 are operating in VTP server mode, but SW4 is a client, so we will need to add both VLANs
to SW1 and SW2.

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QUESTION 114
You have been asked to install and configure a new switch in a customer network. Use the
console access to the existing and new switches to configure and verify correct device
configuration.

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Examine the VTP configuration. You are required to configure private VLANs for a new server
deployment connecting to the SW4 switch. Which of the following configuration steps will allow
creating private VLANs?

A. Disable VTP pruning on SW1 only
B. Disable VTP pruning on SW2 only
C. Disable VTP pruning on SW4 only
D. Disable VTP pruning on SW2, SW4 and New_Switch
E. Disable VTP pruning on New_Switch and SW4 only.

Answer: C
Explanation:
To create private VLANs, you will need to only disable pruning on the switch that contains the
private VLANs. In this case, only SW4 will connect to servers in a private VLAN.

QUESTION 115
Drag and Drop Question

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Answer:

QUESTION 116
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Answer:

QUESTION 117
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Answer:

QUESTION 118
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Answer:

QUESTION 119
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QUESTION 120
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QUESTION 121
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QUESTION 122
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QUESTION 123
Drag and Drop Question

Answer:

QUESTION 124
Drag and Drop Question
Match the HSRP states on the left with the correct definition on the right.

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QUESTION 125
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QUESTION 126
Refer to the exhibit, which statement abort the current configuration on port GigabitEthernet2/0/1
is true?

A. It is an access port configured for a phone and a PC
B. It is a trunk port and the native VLAN is VLAN1
C. It is a trunk port and the natrve VL AN m VLAN 700
D. It is an access port in VLAN 700

Answer: B

QUESTION 127
Which two options are advantages of deploying VTPv3? (Choose two)

A. It stores the VTP domain password securely as a SHA-1 hash
B. It adds on FCS field at the end of each VTP frame for consistency checking
C. It supports the propagation of private VLANs.
D. It supports the use of AES to encrypt VTP messaging
E. It can be configured to allow only one VTP server to make changes to the VTP domain

Answer: CE

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QUESTION 128
What percentage of bandwidth is reduced when a stack cable is broken?

A. 0
B. 25
C. 50
D. 75
E. 100

Answer: C
Explanation:
Physical Sequential Linkage The switches are physically connected sequentially, as shown in
Figure 3.
A break in any one of the cables will result in the stack bandwidth being reduced to half of its full
capacity.
Subsecond timing mechanisms detect traffic problems and immediately institute failover.
This mechanism restores dual path flow when the timing mechanisms detect renewed activity on
the cable.
Figure 3. Cisco StackWise Technology Resilient Cabling

http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/switches/catalyst-3750-series-
switches/prod_white_paper09186a00801b096a.html

QUESTION 129
Refer to the exhibit. Which set of configurations will result in all ports on both switches
successfully bundling into an EtherChannel?

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A. switch1
channel-group 1 mode active
switch2
channel-group 1 mode auto
B. switch1
channel-group 1 mode desirable
switch2
channel-group 1 mode passive
C. switch1
channel-group 1 mode on
switch2
channel-group 1 mode auto
D. switch1
channel-group 1 mode desirable
switch2
channel-group 1 mode auto

Answer: D
Explanation:
The different etherchannel modes are described in the table below:
Mode Description
active Places an interface into an active negotiating state, in which the interface starts
negotiations with other interfaces by sending LACP packets.
auto Places an interface into a passive negotiating state, in which the interface re-sponds to
PAgP packets it receives but does not start PAgP packet negotiation.
This setting minimizes the transmission of PAgP packets.
desirable Places an interface into an active negotiating state, in which the interface starts
negotiations with other interfaces by sending PAgP packets.
on Forces the interface into an EtherChannel without PAgP or LACP. With the on mode, a usable
EtherChannel exists only when an interface group in the on mode is connected to another
interface group in the on mode.

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passive Places an interface into a passive negotiating state, in which the interface re- sponds to
LACP packets that it receives, but does not start LACP packet ne-gotiation. This setting
minimizes the transmission of LACP packets.
Both the auto and desirable PAgP modes allow interfaces to negotiate with partner interfaces to
determine if they can form an EtherChannel based on criteria such
as interface speed and, for Layer 2 EtherChannels, trunking state and VLAN numbers.
Interfaces can form an EtherChannel when they are in different PAgP modes as long as the
modes are compatible. For example:
An interface in the desirable mode can form an EtherChannel with another interface that is in the
desirable or auto mode.
An interface in the auto mode can form an EtherChannel with another interface in the desirable
mode.
An interface in the auto mode cannot form an EtherChannel with another interface that is also in
the auto mode because neither interface starts PAgP negotiation.
An interface in the on mode that is added to a port channel is forced to have the same
characteristics as the already existing on mode interfaces in the channel.
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/lan/catalyst3550/software/release/12-
1_13_ea1/configuration/guide/3550scg/swethchl.html

QUESTION 130
Refer to the exhibit. How can the traffic that is mirrored out the GigabitEthernet0/48 port be
limited to only traffic that is received or transmitted in VLAN 10 on the GigabitEthernet0/1 port?

A. Change the configuration for GigabitEthernet0/48 so that it is a member of VLAN 10.
B. Add an access list to GigabitEthernet0/48 to filter out traffic that is not in VLAN 10.
C. Apply the monitor session filter globally to allow only traffic from VLAN 10.
D. Change the monitor session source to VLAN 10 instead of the physical interface.

Answer: C
Explanation:
To start a new flow-based SPAN (FSPAN) session or flow-based RSPAN (FRSPAN) source or
destination session, or to limit (filter) SPAN source traffic to specific VLANs, use the monitor
session filter global configuration command.
Usage Guidelines
You can set a combined maximum of two local SPAN sessions and RSPAN source sessions.
You can have a total of 66 SPAN and RSPAN sessions on a switch or switch stack.
You can monitor traffic on a single VLAN or on a series or range of ports or VLANs.
You select a series or range of VLANs by using the [ , | -] options.
If you specify a series of VLANs, you must enter a space before and after the comma. If you
specify a range of VLANs, you must enter a space before and after the hyphen ( -). VLAN filtering

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refers to analyzing network traffic on a selected set of VLANs on trunk source ports. By default,
all VLANs are monitored on trunk source ports.
You can use the monitor session session_number filter vlan vlan-id command to limit SPAN traffic
on trunk source ports to only the specified VLANs.
VLAN monitoring and VLAN filtering are mutually exclusive.
If a VLAN is a source, VLAN filtering cannot be enabled. If VLAN filtering is configured, a VLAN
cannot become a source.
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/lan/catalyst3850/software/release/3se/network_m
anagementcommand_reference/b_nm_3se_3850_cr/b_nm_3se_3850_cr_chapter_010.html#wp3
875419997

QUESTION 131
Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer wants to analyze all incoming and outgoing packets for
an interface that is connected to an access switch. Which three items must be configured to
mirror traffic to a packet sniffer that is connected to the distribution switch? (Choose three.)

A. A monitor session on the distribution switch with a physical interface as the source and the
remote SPAN VLAN as the destination
B. A remote SPAN VLAN on the distribution and access layer switch
C. A monitor session on the access switch with a physical interface source and the remote SPAN
VLAN as the destination
D. A monitor session on the distribution switch with a remote SPAN VLAN as the source and
physical interface as the destination
E. A monitor session on the access switch with a remote SPAN VLAN source and the physical
interface as the destination
F. A monitor session on the distribution switch with a physical interface as the source and a physical
interface as the destination

Answer: BCD
Explanation:
You can analyze network traffic passing through ports or VLANs by using SPAN or RSPAN to
send a copy of the traffic to another port on the switch or on another switch that has been
connected to a network analyzer or other monitoring or security device. SPAN copies (or mirrors)
traffic received or sent (or both) on source ports or source VLANs to a destination port for
analysis. RSPAN supports source ports, source VLANs, and destination ports on different
switches (or different switch stacks), enabling remote monitoring of multiple switches across your
network. The traffic for each RSPAN session is carried over a user-specified RSPAN VLAN that
is dedicated for that RSPAN session in all participating switches.

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The RSPAN traffic from the source ports or VLANs is copied into the RSPAN VLAN and
forwarded over trunk ports carrying the RSPAN VLAN to a destination session monitoring the
RSPAN VLAN. Each RSPAN source switch must have either ports or VLANs as RSPAN sources.
The destination is always a physical port.
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/lan/catalyst3750x_3560x/software/release/12-
2_55_se/configuration/guide/3750xscg/swspan.html

QUESTION 132
After an EtherChannel is configured between two Cisco switches, interface port channel 1 is in
the down/down state. Switch A is configured with channel-group 1 mode active, while Switch B is
configured with channel-group 1 mode desirable. Why is the EtherChannel bundle not working?

A. The switches are using mismatched EtherChannel negotiation modes.
B. The switch ports are not configured in trunking mode.
C. LACP priority must be configured on both switches.
D. The channel group identifier must be different for Switch A and Switch B.

Answer: A
Explanation:
Here we have a situation where one switch is using active mode, which is an LACP mode, and
the other is using desirable, which is a PAGP mode.
You can not mix the LACP and PAGP protocols to form an etherchannel. Here is a summary of
the various etherchannel modes:
EtherChannel PAgP Modes
Mode Description
auto Places a port into a passive negotiating state, in which the port responds to PAgP packets it
receives but does not start PAgP packet negotiation.
This setting minimizes the transmission of PAgP packets.
This mode is not supported when the EtherChannel members are from different switches in the
switch stack (cross-stack EtherChannel).
desirable Places a port into an active negotiating state, in which the port starts negotiations with
other ports by sending PAgP packets.
This mode is not supported when the EtherChannel members are from different switches in the
switch stack (cross-stack EtherChannel).
EtherChannel LACP Modes
Mode Description
active Places a port into an active negotiating state in which the port starts negotiations with other
ports by sending LACP packets.
passive Places a port into a passive negotiating state in which the port responds to LACP packets
that it receives, but does not start LACP packet negotiation.
This setting minimizes the transmission of LACP packets.
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/lan/catalyst2960/software/release/12-
2_55_se/configuration/guide/scg_2960/swethchl.html

QUESTION 133
Which feature must be enabled to eliminate the broadcasting of all unknown traffic to switches
that are not participating in the specific VLAN?

A. VTP pruning
B. port-security
C. storm control
D. bpdguard

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Answer: A
Explanation:
VTP ensures that all switches in the VTP domain are aware of all VLANs. However, there are
occasions when VTP can create unnecessary traffic. All unknown unicasts and broadcasts in a
VLAN are flooded over the entire VLAN. All switches in the network receive all broadcasts, even
in situations in which few users are connected in that VLAN. VTP pruning is a feature that you
use in order to eliminate or prune this unnecessary traffic.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/lan-switching/vtp/10558-21.html

QUESTION 134
Refer to the exhibit. The users in an engineering department that connect to the same access
switch cannot access the network. The network engineer found that the engineering VLAN is
missing from the database. Which action resolves this problem?

A. Disable VTP pruning and disable 802.1q.
B. Update the VTP revision number.
C. Change VTP mode to server and enable 802.1q.
D. Enable VTP pruning and disable 802.1q.

Answer: C
Explanation:
Only VTP servers can add new VLANs to the switched network, so to enable vlan 10 on this
switch you will first need to change the VTP mode from client to server.
Then, you will need to enable 802.1Q trunking to pass this new VLAN along to the other switches.

QUESTION 135
A network engineer wants to ensure Layer 2 isolation of customer traffic using a private VLAN.
Which configuration must be made before the private VLAN is configured?

A. Disable VTP and manually assign VLANs.
B. Ensure all switches are configured as VTP server mode.
C. Configure VTP Transparent Mode.
D. Enable VTP version 3.

Answer: C
Explanation:
You must configure VTP to transparent mode before you can create a private VLAN. Private
VLANs are configured in the context of a single switch and cannot have members on other
switches. Private VLANs also carry TLVs that are not known to all types of Cisco switches.
Reference: http://www.ciscopress.com/articles/article.asp?p=29803&seqNum=6

QUESTION 136
Refer to the exhibit. The network switches for two companies have been connected and manually

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configured for the required VLANs, but users in company A are not able to access network
resources in company B when DTP is enabled. Which action resolves this problem?

A. Delete vlan.dat and ensure that the switch with lowest MAC address is the VTP server.
B. Disable DTP and document the VTP domain mismatch.
C. Manually force trunking with switchport mode trunk on both switches.
D. Enable the company B switch with the vtp mode server command.

Answer: C
Explanation:
Since the number of existing VLANs differ on the switches (9 on A and 42 on B) we know that
there is a problem with VTP or the trunking interfaces. The VTP domain names do match and
they are both VTP servers so there are no issues there. The only viable solution is that there is a
DTP issues and so you must instead manually configure the trunk ports between these two
switches so that the VLAN information can be sent to each switch.

QUESTION 137
A network engineer must implement Ethernet links that are capable of transporting frames and IP
traffic for different broadcast domains that are mutually isolated. Consider that this is a
multivendor environment. Which Cisco IOS switching feature can be used to achieve the task?

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A. PPP encapsulation with a virtual template
B. Link Aggregation Protocol at the access layer
C. dot1q VLAN trunking
D. Inter-Switch Link

Answer: C
Explanation:
Here the question asks for transporting "frames and IP traffic for different broadcast domains that
are mutually isolated" which is basically a long way of saying VLANs so trunking is needed to
carry VLAN information. There are 2 different methods for trunking, 802.1Q and ISL. Of these,
only 802.1Q is supported by multiple vendors since ISL is a Cisco proprietary protocol.

QUESTION 138
Which statement about using native VLANs to carry untagged frames is true?

A. Cisco Discovery Protocol version 2 carries native VLAN information, but version 1 does not.
B. Cisco Discovery Protocol version 1 carries native VLAN information, but version 2 does not.
C. Cisco Discovery Protocol version 1 and version 2 carry native VLAN information.
D. Cisco Discovery Protocol version 3 carries native VLAN information, but versions 1 and 2 do not.

Answer: A
Explanation:
Cisco Discovery Protocol (CDP) version 2 passes native VLAN information between Cisco
switches. If you have a native VLAN mismatch, you will see CDP error messages on the console
output.
Reference: http://www.ciscopress.com/articles/article.asp?p=29803&seqNum=3

QUESTION 139
Refer to the exhibit. A multilayer switch has been configured to send and receive encapsulated
and tagged frames. VLAN 2013 on the multilayer switch is configured as the native VLAN. Which
option is the cause of the spanning-tree error?

A. VLAN spanning-tree in SW-2 is configured.
B. spanning-tree bpdu-filter is enabled.
C. 802.1q trunks are on both sides, both with native VLAN mismatch.
D. VLAN ID 1 should not be used for management traffic because its unsafe.

Answer: C
Explanation:
Here we see that the native VLAN has been configured as 2013 on one switch, but 1 (the default
native VLAN) on the other switch. If you use 802.1Q trunks, you must ensure that you choose a
common native VLAN for each port in the trunk. Failure to do this causes Cisco switches to
partially shut down the trunk port because having mismatched native VLANs can result in
spanning-tree loops. Native VLAN mismatches are detected via spanning tree and Cisco

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Discovery Protocol (CDP), not via DTP messages. If spanning tree detects a native VLAN
mismatch, spanning tree blocks local native VLAN traffic and the remote switch native VLAN
traffic on the trunk; however, the trunk still remains up for other VLANs.
Reference: http://www.informit.com/library/content.aspx?
b=CCNP_Studies_Switching&seqNum=25

QUESTION 140
A network engineer must improve bandwidth and resource utilization on the switches by stopping
the inefficient flooding of frames on trunk ports where the frames are not needed. Which Cisco
IOS feature can be used to achieve this task?

A. VTP pruning
B. access list
C. switchport trunk allowed VLAN
D. VLAN access-map

Answer: A
Explanation:
Cisco advocates the benefits of pruning VLANs in order to reduce unnecessary frame flooding.
The“vtp pruning”command prunes VLANs automatically, which stops the inefficient flooding of
frames where they are not needed.
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/switches/catalyst-6500-series-switches/24330-
185.html

QUESTION 141
Refer to the exhibit. What is the result of the configuration?

A. The EtherChannels would not form because the load-balancing method must match on the
devices.
B. The EtherChannels would form and function properly even though the load-balancing and
EtherChannel modes do not match.
C. The EtherChannels would form, but network loops would occur because the load- balancing

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methods do not match.
D. The EtherChannels would form and both devices would use the dst-ip load-balancing method
because Switch1 is configured with EtherChannel mode active.

Answer: B
Explanation:
An etherchannel will form if one end is active and the other is passive.
Load balancing can only be configured globally.
As a result, all channels (manually configured, PagP, or LACP) use the same load-balancing.
This is true for the switch globally, although each switch involved in the etherchannel can have
non matching parameters for load balancing.
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/lan/catalyst4500/12-
2/54sg/configuration/guide/config/channel.html#wp1020804

QUESTION 142
A network engineer tries to configure storm control on an EtherChannel bundle. What is the result
of the configuration?

A. The storm control settings will appear on the EtherChannel, but not on the associated physical
ports.
B. The configuration will be rejected because storm control is not supported for EtherChannel.
C. The storm control configuration will be accepted, but will only be present on the physical
interfaces.
D. The settings will be applied to the EtherChannel bundle and all associated physical interfaces.

Answer: D
Explanation:
After you configure an EtherChannel, any configuration that you apply to the port-channel
interface affects the EtherChannel; any configuration that you apply to the physical interfaces
affects only the interface where you apply the configuration. Storm Control is an exception to this
rule. For example, you cannot configure Storm Control on some of the members of an
EtherChannel; Storm Control must be configured on all or none of the ports.
If you configure Storm Control on only some of the ports, those ports will be dropped from the
EtherChannel interface (put in suspended state). Therefore, you should configure Storm Control
at the EtherChannel Interface level, and not at the physical interface level.

QUESTION 143
A Cisco Catalyst switch that is prone to reboots continues to rebuild the DHCP snooping
database. What is the solution to avoid the snooping database from being rebuilt after every
device reboot?

A. A DHCP snooping database agent should be configured.
B. Enable DHCP snooping for all VLANs that are associated with the switch.
C. Disable Option 82 for DHCP data insertion.
D. Use IP Source Guard to protect the DHCP binding table entries from being lost upon rebooting.
E. Apply ip dhcp snooping trust on all interfaces with dynamic addresses.

Answer: A
Explanation:
Minimum DHCP Snooping Configuration
The minimum configuration steps for the DHCP snooping feature are as follows:
1.Define and configure the DHCP server.

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2.Enable DHCP snooping on at least one VLAN.
By default, DHCP snooping is inactive on all VLANs.
3.Ensure that DHCP server is connected through a trusted interface. By default, the trust state of
all interfaces is untrusted.
4.Configure the DHCP snooping database agent.
This step ensures that database entries are restored after a restart or switchover.
5.Enable DHCP snooping globally.
The feature is not active until you complete this step.
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/switches/lan/catalyst6500/ios/12.2SX/configuration/guide/snoo
dhcp.html#wp1090479

QUESTION 144
Which portion of AAA looks at what a user has access to?

A. authorization
B. authentication
C. accounting
D. auditing

Answer: A
Explanation:
AAA consists of the following three elements:
Authentication: Identifies users by login and password using challenge and response
methodology before the user even gains access to the network. Depending on your security
options, it can also support encryption. Authorization: After initial authentication, authorization
looks at what that authenticated user has access to do. RADIUS or TACACS+ security servers
perform authorization for specific privileges by defining attribute-value (AV) pairs, which would be
specific to the individual user rights. In the Cisco IOS, you can define AAA authorization with a
named list or authorization method.
Accounting: The last "A" is for accounting. It provides a way of collecting security information that
you can use for billing, auditing, and reporting. You can use accounting to see what users do
once they are authenticated and authorized. For example, with accounting, you could get a log of
when users logged in and when they logged out.
Reference: http://www.techrepublic.com/blog/data-center/what-is-aaa-and-how-do-you-configure-
it-in-the-cisco-ios/

QUESTION 145
Which command creates a login authentication method named "login" that will primarily use
RADIUS and fail over to the local user database?

A. (config)# aaa authentication login default radius local
B. (config)# aaa authentication login login radius local
C. (config)# aaa authentication login default local radius
D. (config)# aaa authentication login radius local

Answer: B
Explanation:
In the command "aaa authentication login login radius local" the second login is the name of the
AAA method. It also lists radius first then local, so it will primarily use RADIUS for authentication
and fail over to the local user database only if the RADIUS server is unreachable.

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QUESTION 146
What is the function of NSF?

A. forward traffic simultaneously using both supervisors
B. forward traffic based on Cisco Express Forwarding
C. provide automatic failover to back up supervisor in VSS mode
D. provide nonstop forwarding in the event of failure of one of the member supervisors

Answer: D
Explanation:
VSS is network system virtualization technology that pools multiple Cisco Catalyst 6500 Series
Switches into one virtual switch, increasing operational efficiency, boosting nonstop
communications, and scaling system bandwidth capacity to 1.4 Tbps. Switches would operate as
a single logical virtual switch called a virtual switching system 1440 (VSS1440). VSS formed by
two Cisco Catalyst 6500 Series Switches with the Virtual Switching Supervisor 720-10GE. In a
VSS, the data plane and switch fabric with capacity of 720 Gbps of supervisor engine in each
chassis are active at the same time on both chassis, combining for an active 1400-Gbps
switching capacity per VSS. Only one of the virtual switch members has the active control plane.
Both chassis are kept in sync with the inter-chassis Stateful Switchover (SSO) mechanism along
with Nonstop Forwarding (NSF) to provide nonstop communication even in the event of failure of
one of the member supervisor engines or chassis.

QUESTION 147
Which configuration command ties the router hot standby priority to the availability of its
interfaces?

A. standby group
B. standby priority
C. backup interface
D. standby track

Answer: D
Explanation:
The standby track interface configuration command ties the router hot standby priority to the
availability of its interfaces and is useful for tracking interfaces that are not configured for HSRP.
When a tracked interface fails, the hot standby priority on the device on which tracking has been
configured decreases by 10. If an interface is not tracked, its state changes do not affect the hot
standby priority of the configured device. For each interface configured for hot standby, you can
configure a separate list of interfaces to be tracked.
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/switches/lan/catalyst3550/software/release/12.1_19_ea1/config
uration/guide/swhsrp.html

QUESTION 148
What is the default HSRP priority?

A. 50
B. 100
C. 120
D. 1024

Answer: B

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Explanation:
standby [group-num-Set a priority value used in choosing the active router. The ber] priority
priority range is 1 to 255; the default priority is 100. The highest [preempt [delay delay]] number
represents the highest priority.
(Optional) group-number--The group number to which
the command applies.
(Optional)
preempt--Select so that when the local router has a higher priority than the active router, it
assumes control as the active router.
(Optional)
delay--Set to cause the local router to post-pone taking over the active role for the shown number
of sec- onds. The range is 0 to 36000 (1 hour); the default is 0 (no de- lay before taking over).
Use the no form of the command to restore the default values.
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/switches/lan/catalyst3550/software/release/12.1_19_ea1/config
uration/guide/swhsrp.html#wp1044327

QUESTION 149
A server with a statically assigned IP address is attached to a switch that is provisioned for DHCP
snooping. For more protection against malicious attacks, the network team is considering
enabling dynamic ARP inspection alongside DHCP snooping.
Which solution ensures that the server maintains network reachability in the future?

A. Disable DHCP snooping information option.
B. Configure a static DHCP snooping binding entry on the switch.
C. Trust the interface that is connected to the server with the ip dhcp snooping trust command.
D. Verify the source MAC address of all untrusted interfaces with ip dhcp snooping verify mac-
address command.

Answer: B
Explanation:
Dynamic ARP inspection is a security feature that validates ARP packets in a network. It
intercepts, logs, and discards ARP packets with invalid IP-to-MAC address bindings. This
capability protects the network from certain man-in-the-middle attacks. Dynamic ARP inspection
ensures that only valid ARP requests and responses are relayed. The switch performs these
activities:
Intercepts all ARP requests and responses on untrusted ports Verifies that each of these
intercepted packets has a valid IP-to-MAC address binding before updating the local ARP cache
or before forwarding the packet to the appropriate destination.
Drops invalid ARP packets Dynamic ARP inspection determines the validity of an ARP packet
based on valid IP-to-MAC address bindings stored in a trusted database, the DHCP snooping
binding database. This database is built by DHCP snooping if DHCP snooping is enabled on the
VLANs and on the switch. If the ARP packet is received on a trusted interface, the switch
forwards the packet without any checks. On untrusted interfaces, the switch forwards the packet
only if it is valid. To ensure network reachability to the server, configure a static DHCP snooping
binding entry on the switch.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/lan/catalyst3750/software/release/12-
2_55_se/configuration/guide/scg3750/swdynarp.html

QUESTION 150
DHCP snooping and IP Source Guard have been configured on a switch that connects to several
client workstations. The IP address of one of the workstations does not match any entries found
in the DHCP binding database. Which statement describes the outcome of this scenario?

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A. Packets from the workstation will be rate limited according to the default values set on the switch.
B. The interface that is connected to the workstation in question will be put into the errdisabled state.
C. Traffic will pass accordingly after the new IP address is populated into the binding database.
D. The packets originating from the workstation are assumed to be spoofed and will be discarded.

Answer: D
Explanation:
The IP source binding table has bindings that are learned by DHCP snooping or are manually
configured (static IP source bindings). An entry in this table has an IP address, its associated
MAC address, and its associated VLAN number. The switch uses the IP source binding table only
when IP source guard is enabled. You can configure IP source guard with source IP address
filtering, or with source IP and MAC address filtering. When IP source guard is enabled with this
option, IP traffic is filtered based on the source IP address. The switch forwards IP traffic when
the source IP address matches an entry in the DHCP snooping binding database or a binding in
the IP source binding table. When IP source guard is enabled with this option, IP traffic is filtered
based on the source IP and MAC addresses. The switch forwards traffic only when the source IP
and MAC addresses match an entry in the IP source binding table. If there is no match, the
packets are assumed to be spoofed and will be discarded.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/switches/catalyst-3750-series-
switches/72846-layer2-secftrs-catl3fixed.html#ipsourceguard

QUESTION 151
Which technique allows specific VLANs to be strictly permitted by the administrator?

A. VTP pruning
B. transparent bridging
C. trunk-allowed VLANs
D. VLAN access-list
E. L2P tunneling

Answer: C
Explanation:
By default, a trunk port sends traffic to and receives traffic from all VLANs. All VLAN IDs, 1 to
4094, are allowed on each trunk. However, you can remove VLANs from the allowed list,
preventing traffic from those VLANs from passing over the trunk. To restrict the traffic a trunk
carries, use the "switchport trunk allowed vlan remove vlan-list" interface configuration command
to remove specific VLANs from the allowed list.

QUESTION 152
For security reasons, the IT manager has prohibited users from dynamically establishing trunks
with their associated upstream switch. Which two actions can prevent interface trunking?
(Choose two.)

A. Configure trunk and access interfaces manually.
B. Disable DTP on a per interface basis.
C. Apply BPDU guard and BPDU filter.
D. Enable switchport block on access ports.

Answer: AB
Explanation:

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The Dynamic Trunking Protocol (DTP) is used to negotiate forming a trunk between two Cisco
devices.
DTP causes increased traffic, and is enabled by default, but may be disabled. To disable DTP,
configure "switchport nonegotiate." This prevents the interface from generating DTP frames.
You can use this command only when the interface switchport mode is access or trunk.
You must manually configure the neighboring interface as a trunk interface to establish a trunk
link, otherwise the link will be a non-trunking link.

QUESTION 153
Which two protocols can be automatically negotiated between switches for trunking? (Choose
two.)

A. PPP
B. DTP
C. ISL
D. HDLC
E. DLCI
F. DOT1Q

Answer: CF
Explanation:
Switches such as the Catalyst 3550 that are capable of either 802.1Q or ISL trunking
encapsulation, the switchport trunk encapsulation [dot1q | isl | negotiate] interface command must
be used prior to the switchport mode trunk command.

QUESTION 154
A network is running VTPv2. After verifying all VTP settings, the network engineer notices that the
new switch is not receiving the list of VLANs from the server. Which action resolves this problem?

A. Reload the new switch.
B. Restart the VTP process on the new switch.
C. Reload the VTP server.
D. Verify connected trunk ports.

Answer: D
Explanation:
VTP should never need to have the switch reloaded or the VTP process to restart in order for it to
work.
The first thing that should be done is to verify that the trunk ports are connected and up.

QUESTION 155
After configuring new data VLANs 1020 through 1030 on the VTP server, a network engineer
notices that none of the VTP clients are receiving the updates. What is the problem?

A. The VTP server must be reloaded.
B. The VTP version number must be set to version 3.
C. After each update to the VTP server, it takes up to 4 hours propagate.
D. VTP must be stopped and restarted on the server.
E. Another switch in the domain has a higher revision number than the server.

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Answer: B
Explanation:
VTP version 3 supports these features that are not supported in version 1 or version 2:
Enhanced authentication--You can configure the authentication as hidden or secret.
When hidden, the secret key from the password string is saved in the VLAN database file, but it
does not appear in plain text in the configuration. Instead, the key associated with the password
is saved in hexadecimal format in the running configuration.
You must reenter the password if you enter a takeover command in the domain.
When you enter the secret keyword, you can directly configure the password secret key.
Support for extended range VLAN (VLANs 1006 to 4094) database propagation.
VTP versions 1 and 2 propagate only VLANs 1 to 1005. If extended VLANs are configured, you
cannot convert from VTP version 3 to version 1 or 2.

QUESTION 156
A network engineer is extending a LAN segment between two geographically separated data
centers. Which enhancement to a spanning-tree design prevents unnecessary traffic from
crossing the extended LAN segment?

A. Modify the spanning-tree priorities to dictate the traffic flow.
B. Create a Layer 3 transit VLAN to segment the traffic between the sites.
C. Use VTP pruning on the trunk interfaces.
D. Configure manual trunk pruning between the two locations.

Answer: C
Explanation:
Pruning unnecessary VLANs from the trunk can be performed with one of two methods:
• Manual pruning of the unnecessary VLAN on the trunk - This is the best method, and it avoids
the use of the spanning tree. Instead, the method runs the pruned VLAN on trunks.
• VTP pruning - Avoid this method if the goal is to reduce the number of STP instances.
VTP-pruned VLANs on a trunk are still part of the spanning tree. Therefore, VTP-pruned VLANs
do not reduce the number of spanning tree port instances.
Since the question asked for the choice that is an enhancement to the STP design, VTP pruning
is the best choice.
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk389/tk689/technologies_tech_note09186a0080890613.shtml

QUESTION 157
The network manager has requested that several new VLANs (VLAN 10, 20, and 30) are allowed
to traverse the switch trunk interface. After the command switchport trunk allowed vlan 10,20,30
is issued, all other existing VLANs no longer pass traffic over the trunk. What is the root cause of
the problem?

A. The command effectively removed all other working VLANs and replaced them with the new
VLANs.
B. VTP pruning removed all unused VLANs.
C. ISL was unable to encapsulate more than the already permitted VLANs across the trunk.
D. Allowing additional VLANs across the trunk introduced a loop in the network.

Answer: A
Explanation:
The "switchport trunk allowed vlan" command will only allow the specified VLANs, and overwrite
any others that were previously defined. You would also need to explicitly allow the other working

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VLANs to this configuration command, or use the "issue the switchport trunk allowed vlan add
vlan-list" command instead to add these 3 VLANS to the other defined allowed VLANs.

QUESTION 158
When you design a switched network using VTPv2, how many VLANs can be used to carry user
traffic?

A. 1000
B. 1001
C. 1024
D. 2048
E. 4095
F. 4096

Answer: B
Explanation:
VTP versions 1 and 2 Supports normal VLAN numbers (1-1001).
Only VTP version 3 supports extended VLANs (1-4095).

QUESTION 159
What does the command vlan dot1q tag native accomplish when configured under global
configuration?

A. All frames within the native VLAN are tagged, except when the native VLAN is set to 1.
B. It allows control traffic to pass using the non-default VLAN.
C. It removes the 4-byte dot1q tag from every frame that traverses the trunk interface(s).
D. Control traffic is tagged.

Answer: D
Explanation:
The "vlan dot1q tag native" will tag all untagged frames, including control traffic, with the defined
native VLAN.

QUESTION 160
Which private VLAN access port belongs to the primary VLAN and can communicate with all
interfaces, including the community and isolated host ports?

A. promiscuous port
B. isolated port
C. community port
D. trunk port

Answer: A
Explanation:
The types of private VLAN ports are as follows:
Promiscuous--A promiscuous port belongs to the primary VLAN. The promiscuous port can
communicate with all interfaces, including the community and isolated host ports, that belong to
those secondary VLANs associated to the promiscuous port and associated with the primary
VLAN. You can have several promiscuous ports in a primary VLAN. Each promiscuous port can
have several secondary VLANs, or no secondary VLANs, associated to that port. You can
associate a secondary VLAN to more than one promiscuous port, as long as the promiscuous

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port and secondary VLANs are within the same primary VLAN. You may want to do this for load-
balancing or redundancy purposes. You can also have secondary VLANs that are not associated
to any promiscuous port.
Isolated--An isolated port is a host port that belongs to an isolated secondary VLAN. This port has
complete isolation from other ports within the same private VLAN domain, except that it can
communicate with associated promiscuous ports. Private VLANs block all traffic to isolated ports
except traffic from promiscuous ports. Traffic received from an isolated port is forwarded only to
promiscuous ports. You can have more than one isolated port in a specified isolated VLAN. Each
port is completely isolated from all other ports in the isolated VLAN.
Community--A community port is a host port that belongs to a community secondary VLAN.
Community ports communicate with other ports in the same community VLAN and with
associated promiscuous ports.
These interfaces are isolated from all other interfaces in other communities and from all isolated
ports within the private VLAN domain.
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/nexus5000/sw/configuration/guide/cli/C
LIConfigurationGuide/PrivateVLANs.html

QUESTION 161
Which private VLAN can have only one VLAN and be a secondary VLAN that carries
unidirectional traffic upstream from the hosts toward the promiscuous ports and the gateway?

A. isolated VLAN
B. primary VLAN
C. community VLAN
D. promiscuous VLAN

Answer: A
Explanation:
Understanding Primary, Isolated, and Community Private VLANs Primary VLANs and the two
types of secondary VLANs (isolated and community) have these characteristics:
Primary VLAN--The primary VLAN carries traffic from the promiscuous ports to the host ports,
both isolated and community, and to other promiscuous ports.
Isolated VLAN--An isolated VLAN is a secondary VLAN that carries unidirectional traffic upstream
from the hosts toward the promiscuous ports. You can configure multiple isolated VLANs in a
private VLAN domain; all the traffic remains isolated within each one. Each isolated VLAN can
have several isolated ports, and the traffic from each isolated port also remains completely
separate.
Community VLAN--A community VLAN is a secondary VLAN that carries upstream traffic from
the community ports to the promiscuous port and to other host ports in the same community. You
can configure multiple community VLANs in a private VLAN domain. The ports within one
community can communicate, but these ports cannot communicate with ports in any other
community or isolated VLAN in the private VLAN.
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/nexus5000/sw/configuration/guide/cli/
CLIConfigurationGuide/PrivateVLANs.html

QUESTION 162
Which database is used to determine the validity of an ARP packet based on a valid IP-to- MAC
address binding?

A. DHCP snooping database
B. dynamic ARP database

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C. dynamic routing database
D. static ARP database

Answer: A
Explanation:
Information About Dynamic ARP Inspection DAI is used to validate ARP requests and responses
as follows:
Intercepts all ARP requests and responses on untrusted ports.
Verifies that a packet has a valid IP-to-MAC address binding before updating the ARP cache or
forwarding the packet.
Drops invalid ARP packets.
DAI can determine the validity of an ARP packet based on valid IP-to-MAC address bindings
stored in a DHCP snooping binding database. This database is built by DHCP snooping when it is
enabled on the VLANs and on the device. It may also contain static entries that you have created.
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/nexus1000/hyperv/sw/5_2_1_s_m_1_5
_2/troubleshooting/configuration/guide/n1000v_troubleshooting/n1000v_trouble_19dhcp.html

QUESTION 163
When IP Source Guard with source IP filtering is enabled on an interface, which feature must be
enabled on the access VLAN for that interface?

A. DHCP snooping
B. storm control
C. spanning-tree portfast
D. private VLAN

Answer: A
Explanation:
IP Source Guard Configuration Guidelines
You can configure static IP bindings only on nonrouted ports. If you enter the ip source binding
mac-address vlan vlan-id ip-address interface interface-id global configuration command on a
routed interface, this error message appears:
Static IP source binding can only be configured on switch port.
When IP source guard with source IP filtering is enabled on an interface, DHCP snooping must
be enabled on the access VLAN for that interface.
If you are enabling IP source guard on a trunk interface with multiple VLANs and DHCP snooping
is enabled on all the VLANs, the source IP address filter is applied on all the VLANs.
You can enable this feature when 802.1x port-based authentication is enabled.
Reference: http:// www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/lan/catalyst2960x/software/15-
0_2_EX/security/configuration_guide/b_sec_152ex_2960-x_cg/b_sec_152ex_2960-
x_cg_chapter_01110.html

QUESTION 164
Which switch feature prevents traffic on a LAN from being overwhelmed by continuous multicast
or broadcast traffic?

A. storm control
B. port security
C. VTP pruning
D. VLAN trunking

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Answer: A
Explanation:
A traffic storm occurs when packets flood the LAN, which creates excessive traffic and degrades
network performance. The traffic storm control feature prevents LAN ports from being disrupted
by a broadcast, multicast, or unicast traffic storm on physical interfaces from either mistakes in
network configurations or from users issuing a DoS attack.
Reference:
http://3c3cc.com/c/en/us/td/docs/routers/7600/ios/122SR/configuration/guide/swcg/dos.pdf

QUESTION 165
Which command would a network engineer apply to error-disable a switchport when a packet-
storm is detected?

A. router(config-if)#storm-control action shutdown
B. router(config-if)#storm-control action trap
C. router(config-if)#storm-control action error
D. router(config-if)#storm-control action enable

Answer: A
Explanation:
Configuring the Traffic Storm Control Shutdown Mode
To configure the traffic storm control shutdown mode on an interface, perform this task:
Command Purpose
Step 1 Router(config)# interface {{type1 Selects an interface to configure.
slot/port} | {port-channel num-ber}}
Step 2 Router(config-if)# storm-control (Optional) Configures traffic storm control to action
shutdown error- disable ports when a traffic storm occurs.
·Enter the no storm-control action shut-down command to revert to the default action (drop).
·Use the error disable detection and recov-ery feature, or the shutdown and no shut-down
commands to reenable ports.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/lan/catalyst6500/ios/12-
2SX/configuration/guide/book/storm.html

QUESTION 166
When a Cisco Catalyst switch that is configured in VTP server mode is first booted, which two
VLAN ranges are loaded on the switch?

A. all VLAN are in the VLAN database.
B. VLANs greater than 1005 in the startup-config file
C. the first 1005 VLANs in the VLAN database file
D. the first 1005 VLANs in the startup-config file
E. VLANs greater than 1005 in the VLAN database file

Answer: BD

QUESTION 167
An enterprise network has port security sticky enabled on all access ports.
A network administrator moves a PC from one office desk to another.
After the PC is moved, the network administrator clears the port security on the new network
switch port connecting to the PC, but the port keeps going back into err-disabled mode.
Which two factors are possible causes of this issue? (Choose two)

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A. Port security sticky exists on the new network switch port.
B. Port security sticky is disabled on the new network switch port.
C. Port security must be disabled on all access ports.
D. Port security is still enabled on the older network switch port.
E. Port security sticky is still enabled on the older network switch port.

Answer: AE

QUESTION 168
On which interface can port security be configured?

A. static trunk ports
B. destination port for SPAN
C. EtherChannel port group
D. dynamic access point

Answer: A
Explanation:
Port Security and Port Types
You can configure port security only on Layer 2 interfaces. Details about port security and
different types of interfaces or ports are as follows:
Access ports--You can configure port security on interfaces that you have configured as Layer 2
access ports. On an access port, port security applies only to the access VLAN. Trunk ports--You
can configure port security on interfaces that you have configured as Layer 2 trunk ports. VLAN
maximums are not useful for access ports. The device allows VLAN maximums only for VLANs
associated with the trunk port.
SPAN ports--You can configure port security on SPAN source ports but not on SPAN destination
ports.
Ethernet Port Channels--Port security is not supported on Ethernet port channels.
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/sw/4_1/nx-
os/security/configuration/guide/sec_nx-os-cfg/sec_portsec.html

QUESTION 169
Based on the show spanning-tree vlan 200 output shown in the exhibit, which two statements
about the STP process for VLAN 200 are true? (Choose two.)

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A. BPDUs will be sent out every two seconds.
B. The time spent in the listening state will be 30 seconds.
C. The time spent in the learning state will be 15 seconds.
D. The maximum length of time that the BPDU information will be saved is 30 seconds.
E. This switch is the root bridge for VLAN 200.
F. BPDUs will be sent out every 10 seconds.

Answer: BF

QUESTION 170
Which three statements are correct with regard to the IEEE 802.1Q standard? (Choose three)

A. The IEEE 802.1Q frame format adds a 4 byte field to a Ethernet frame
B. The packet is encapsulated with a 26 byte header and a 4 byte FCS
C. The protocol uses point-to-multipoint connectivity
D. The protocol uses point-to-point connectivity
E. The IEEE 802.1Q frame uses multicast destination of 0x01-00-0c-00-00
F. The IEEE 802.1Q frame retains the original MAC destination address

Answer: ADF

QUESTION 171
Refer to the exhibit. Based upon the output of show vlan on switch CAT2, what can we conclude
about interfaces Fa0/13 and Fa0/14?

A. That interfaces Fa0/13 and Fa0/14 are in VLAN 1
B. That interfaces Fa0/13 and Fa0/14 are down
C. That interfaces Fa0/13 and Fa0/14 are trunk interfaces
D. That interfaces Fa0/13 and Fa0/14 have a domain mismatch with another switch
E. That interfaces Fa0/13 and Fa0/14 have a duplex mismatch with another switch

Answer: C

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QUESTION 172
VLAN maps have been configured on switch R1. Which of the following actions are taken in a
VLAN map that does not contain a match clause?

A. Implicit deny feature at end of list.
B. Implicit deny feature at start of list.
C. Implicit forward feature at end of list
D. Implicit forward feature at start of list.

Answer: A

QUESTION 173
Given the configuration on a switch interface, what happens when a host with the MAC address
of 0003.0003.0003 is directly connected to the switch port?

switchport mode access
switchport port-security
switchport port-security maximum 2
switchport port-security mac-address 0002.0002.0002
switchport port-security violation shutdown

A. The host will be allowed to connect.
B. The port will shut down.
C. The host can only connect through a hub/switch where 0002.0002.0002 is already connected.
D. The host will be refused access.

Answer: A

QUESTION 174
Refer to the exhibit. Switch 15 is configured as the root switch for VLAN 10 but not for VLAN 20.
If the STP configuration is correct, what will be true about Switch 15?

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A. All ports will be in forwarding mode.
B. All ports in VLAN 10 will be in forwarding mode.
C. All ports in VLAN 10 will be in forwarding mode and all ports in VLAN 20 will be in blocking mode.
D. All ports in VLAN 10 will be in forwarding mode and all ports in VLAN 20 will be in standby mode.

Answer: B

QUESTION 175
Which of the following HSRP router states does an active router enter when it is preempted by a
higher priority router? (Select the best answer.)

A. active
B. speak
C. learn
D. listen
E. init
F. standby

Answer: B

QUESTION 176
Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the output of the show spanning-tree inconsistentports
command, which statement about interfaces FastEthernet 0/1 and FastEthernet 0/2 is true?

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A. They have been configured with the spanning-tree bpdufilter disable command.
B. They have been configured with the spanning-tree bpdufilter enable command.
C. They have been configured with the spanning-tree bpduguard disable command.
D. They have been configured with the spanning-tree bpduguard enable command.
E. They have been configured with the spanning-tree guard loop command.
F. They have been configured with the spanning-tree guard root command.

Answer: F

QUESTION 177
You want to configure a switched internetwork with multiple VLANs as shown above. Which of the
following commands should you issue on SwitchA for the port connected to SwitchB? (Select the
best answer.)

A. switchport mode trunk
B. switchport access vlan 5
C. switchport mode access vlan 5
D. switchport trunk native vlan 5

Answer: A

QUESTION 178
You administer a network that uses two routers, R1 and R2, configured as an HSRP group to

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provide redundancy for the gateway. Router R1 is the active router and has been configured as
follows:

R1#configure terminal
R1(config)#interface fa0/0
R1(config-if)#ip address 10.10.0.5 255.255.255.0
R1(config-if)#standby 1 priority 150
R1(config-if)#standby preempt delay minimum 50
R1(config-if)#standby 1 track interface fa0/2 15
R1(config-if)#standby 1 ip 10.10.0.20

Which of the following describes the effect the "standby preempt delay minimum 50" command
will have on router R1? (Select the best answer.)

A. The HSRP priority for router R1 will increase to 200.
B. Router R1 will become the standby router if the priority drops below 50.
C. The HSRP priority for router R1 will decrease to 50 points when Fa0/2 goes down.
D. Router R1 will wait 50 seconds before attempting to preempt the active router.

Answer: D

QUESTION 179
Which statement is correct about 802.1Q trunking?

A. Both switches must be in the same VTP domain.
B. The encapsulation type of both ends of the trunk does not have to match.
C. The native VLAN on both ends of the trunk must be VLAN 1.
D. 802.1Q trunking can only be configured on a Layer 2 port.
E. In 802.1Q trunking, all VLAN packets are tagged on the trunk link, except the native VLAN.

Answer: E

QUESTION 180
Which of the following commands can be issued without interfering with the operation of loop
guard?

A. Switch(config-if)#spanning-tree guard root
B. Switch(config-if)#spanning-tree portfast
C. Switch(config-if)#switchport mode trunk
D. Switch(config-if)#switchport mode access

Answer: C

QUESTION 181
The following command was issued on a router that is being configured as the active HSRP
router.

standby ip 10.2.1.1

Which statement is true about this command?

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A. This command will not work because the HSRP group information is missing
B. The HSRP MAC address will be 0000 0c07 ac00
C. The HSRP MAC address will be 0000 0c07 ac01.
D. The HSRP MAC address will be 0000.070c ad01.
E. This command will not work because the active parameter is missing

Answer: B

QUESTION 182
Routers R1 and R2 are configured for HSRP as shown below:

Router R1:
interface ethernet 0
ip address 20.6.2.1 255.255.255.0
standby 35 ip 20.6.2.21
standby 35 priority 100
interface ethernet 1
ip address 20.6.1.1.2 255.255.255.0
standby 34 ip 20.6.1.21

Router R2:
interface ethernet 0
ip address 20.6.2.2 255.255.255.0
standby 35 ip 20.6.2.21
interface ethernet 1
ip address 20.6.1.1.1 255.255.255.0
standby 34 ip 20.6.1.21
standby 34 priority 100

You have configured the routers R1 & R2 with HSRP. While debugging router R2 you notice very
frequent HSRP group state transitions. What is the most likely cause of this?

A. physical layer issues
B. no spanning tree loops
C. use of non-default HSRP timers
D. failure to set the command standby 35 preempt

Answer: A

QUESTION 183
Which two statements about the HSRP priority are true? (Choose two)

A. To assign the HSRP router priority in a standby group, the standby group-number priority
priority-value global configuration command must be used.
B. The default priority of a router is zero (0).
C. The no standby priority command assigns a priority of 100 to the router.
D. Assuming that preempting has also been configured, the router with the lowest priority in an HSRP
group would become the active router.
E. When two routers in an HSRP standby group are configured with identical priorities, the router with
the highest configured IP address will become the active router.

Answer: CE

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QUESTION 184
Which three statements are true of a default HSRP configuration? (Choose three.)

A. The Standby hello time is 2 seconds.
B. Two HSRP groups are configured.
C. The Standby track interface priority decrement is 10.
D. The Standby hold time is 10 seconds
E. The Standby priority is 100.
F. The Standby delay is 3 seconds.

Answer: CDE

QUESTION 185
Refer to the exhibit. What is the result of setting GLBP weighting at 105 with lower threshold 90
and upper threshold 100 on this router?

A. Only if both tracked objects are up will this router will be available as an AVF for group 1.
B. Only if the state of both tracked objects goes down will this router release its status as an AVF
for group 1.
C. If both tracked objects go down and then one comes up, but the other remains down, this router
will be available as an AVF for group 1.
D. This configuration is incorrect and will not have any effect on GLBP operation.
E. If the state of one tracked object goes down then this router will release its status as an AVF for
group 1.

Answer: B

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QUESTION 186
Which describes the default load balacing scheme used by the Gateway Load Balancing Protocol
(GLBP)?

A. Per host using a strict priority scheme
B. Per session using a round-robin scheme
C. Per session using a strict priority scheme
D. Per GLBP group using a strict priority scheme
E. Per host basis using a round robin-scheme
F. Per GLBP group using a round-robin scheme

Answer: E

QUESTION 187
Refer to the exhibit. When troubleshooting a network problem, a network analyzer is connected to
Port f0/1 of a LAN switch. Which command can prevent BPDU transmission on this port?

A. spanning-tree portfast bpduguard enable
B. spanning-tree bpduguard default
C. spanning-tree portfast bpdufilter default
D. no spanning-tree link-type shared

Answer: C

QUESTION 188
Which four LACP components are used to determine which hot-standby links become active after
an interface failure within an EtherChannel bundle? (Choose four.)

A. LACP system priority
B. LACP port priority
C. interface MAC address
D. system ID
E. port number
F. hot-standby link identification number
G. interface bandwidth

Answer: ABDE

QUESTION 189
RSPAN has been configured on a Cisco Catalyst switch; however, traffic is not being replicated to

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the remote switch. Which type of misconfiguration is a cause?

A. The RSPAN designated VLAN is missing the remote span command.
B. The local and remote RSPAN switches are configured using different session IDs.
C. The local RSPAN switch is replicating only Rx traffic to the remote switch.
D. The local switch is overloaded with the amount of sourced traffic that must be replicated to the
remote switch.

Answer: A

QUESTION 190
After UDLD is implemented, a Network Administrator noticed that one port stops receiving UDLD
packets. This port continues to reestablish until after eight failed retries. The port then transitions
into the errdisable state. Which option describes what causes the port to go into the errdisable
state?

A. Normal UDLD operations that prevent traffic loops.
B. UDLD port is configured in aggressive mode.
C. UDLD is enabled globally.
D. UDLD timers are inconsistent.

Answer: B
Explanation:
With UDLD aggressive mode enabled, when a port on a bidirectional link that has a UDLD
neighbor relationship established stops receiving UDLD packets, UDLD tries to reestablish the
connection with the neighbor.
After eight failed retries, the port is disabled.

QUESTION 191
To follow the Layer 2 switching guidelines, a network engineer decides to create a separate
spanning tree for every group of 10 VLANs. Which version of spanning tree is appropriate to meet
the company policy?

A. MST
B. PVST+
C. RSTP
D. RPVST+
E. STP

Answer: A

QUESTION 192
A network engineer is installing a switch for temporary workers to connect to. The engineer does
not want this switch participating in Spanning Tree with the rest of the network; however, end
user connectivity is still required. Which spanning-tree feature accomplishes this?

A. BPDUblock
B. BPDUfilter
C. BPDUignore
D. BPDUguard

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E. BPDUdisable

Answer: B

QUESTION 193
Refer to the exhibit. What is the result of the SPAN configuration on a Cisco switch?

A. Configure a SPAN session to monitor the received traffic on interface g0/4 only for VLAN 3.
B. Configure a SPAN session to monitor the received traffic on interface g0/4 for all VLANs except
VLAN 3.
C. Configure a SPAN session to monitor the received traffic on interface g0/5 only for VLAN 3.
D. Configure a SPAN session to monitor the received traffic on interface g0/5 for all VLANs except
VLAN 3.

Answer: A

QUESTION 194
When SDM templates are configured, which action must be performed for the configuration to
take effect?

A. reload
B. shutdown
C. write memory
D. backup config

Answer: A

QUESTION 195
Which statement about the MAC address sticky entries in the switch when the copy run start
command is entered is true?

A. A sticky MAC address is retained when the switch reboots.
B. A sticky MAC address can be a unicast or multicast address.
C. A sticky MAC address is lost when the switch reboots.
D. A sticky MAC address ages out of the MAC address table after 600 seconds.

Answer: A

QUESTION 196
Enablement of which feature puts the port into err-disabled state when the port has PortFast
enabled and it receives BPDUs?

A. BPDU filtering

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B. BackboneFast
C. EtherChannel
D. BPDU guard

Answer: D

QUESTION 197
Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration ensures that the Cisco Discovery Protocol packet update
frequency sent from DSW1 to ALS1 is half of the default value?

A. DSW1(config)#cdp timer 90
B. DSW1(config-if)#cdp holdtime 60
C. DSW1(config)#cdp timer 30
D. DSW1(config)#cdp holdtime 90
E. DSW1(config-if)#cdp holdtime 30
F. DSW1(config-if)#cdp timer 60

Answer: C

QUESTION 198
Interfaces are assigned to a VLAN, and then the VLAN is deleted. Which state are these
interfaces in after the VLAN is deleted?

A. They remain up, but they are reassigned to the default VLAN.
B. They go down until they are reassigned to a VLAN.
C. They go down, but they are reassigned to the default VLAN.
D. They remain up, but they are reassigned to the native VLAN.

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Answer: B

QUESTION 199
Which feature is automatically configured when an administrator enables a voice VLAN?

A. 802.1Q trunking
B. PortFast
C. QoS
D. private VLANs

Answer: B

QUESTION 200
Which statement describes one major issue that VTP can cause in an enterprise network when a
new switch is introduced in the network in VTP mode server?

A. It can cause network access ports to go into err-disabled state.
B. It can cause a network-wide VLAN configuration change if the revision number on the new switch
is higher.
C. It can cause a network-wide VLAN configuration change if the revision number on the new switch
is lower.
D. It can cause routing loops.

Answer: B

QUESTION 201
A network administrator configures 10 extended VLANs ranging from VLANs 3051 to 3060 in an
enterprise network. Which version of VTP supports these extended VLANs?

A. version 1
B. version 2
C. version 3
D. VTP does not recognize extended VLANs.

Answer: C

QUESTION 202
An engineer is configuring an EtherChannel between two switches using LACP. If the
EtherChannel mode on switch 1 is configured to active, which two modes on switch 2 establish
an operational EtherChannel? (Choose two.)

A. active
B. auto
C. desirable
D. on
E. passive

Answer: AE

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QUESTION 203
When a Layer 2 EtherChannel is configured, which statement about placement of the IP address
is true?

A. The IP address is placed on the highest numbered member port.
B. The IP address is placed on the port-channel logical interface.
C. The IP address is placed on the lowest numbered member port.
D. The IP address is assigned via DHCP only.

Answer: B

QUESTION 204
Which option is valid for EtherChannel load balancing?

A. source MAC address and source IP address
B. destination MAC address and destination IP address
C. source MAC address and destination IP address
D. source MAC address and destination MAC address

Answer: D

QUESTION 205
Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is configuring EtherChannel between two switches and notices
the console message on switch 2.
Based on the output, which option describes the reason for this error?

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A. Switch 1 does not have enough member ports configured.
B. Switch 2 has too many member ports configured.
C. The port channel interface numbers do not match.
D. The EtherChannel protocols do not match.

Answer: D

QUESTION 206
Refer to the exhibit. DSW1 should share the same MST region with switch DSW2. Which
statement is true?

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A. Configure DSW1 with the same version number, and VLAN-to-instance mapping as shown on
DSW2.
B. DSW2 uses the VTP server mode to automatically propagate the MST configuration to DSW1.
C. DSW1 automatically inherits MST configuration from DSW2 because they have the same domain
name.
D. Configure DSW1 with the same region name, revision number, and VLAN-to-instance mapping as
shown on DSW2.
E. DSW1 is in VTP client mode with a lower configuration revision number, therefore, it automatically
inherits MST configuration from DW2.

Answer: D

QUESTION 207
If StormControl is enabled on a port and the traffic reachesthe configured level, which two actions
can be configured to occur? (Choose two)

A. Trap
B. notify admin
C. redirect traffic
D. log
E. shut down

Answer: AE

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QUESTION 208
Which two options are advantages of deploying VTPv3? (Choose two)

A. It stores the VTP domain password securely as a SHA-1 hash.
B. It adds an FCS field at the end of each VTP frame for consistency checking.
C. It supports the propagation of private VLANs.
D. It supports the use of AES to encrypt VTP messaging.
E. It can be configured to allow only one VTP server to make changes to the VTP domain.

Answer: CE

QUESTION 209
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement about the SPAN and RSPAN configuration on SW1 is true?

A. SPAN session 2 only monitors egress traffic exiting port FastEthernet 0/14.
B. RSPAN session 1 monitors activity on VLAN 50 of a remote switch.
C. RSPAN session 1 is incompletely configured for monitoring.
D. SPAN session 2 monitors all traffic entering and exiting port FastEthernet 0/15.

Answer: C

QUESTION 210
Which information does the subordinate switch in a switch stack keep for all the VLANs that are
configured on it?

A. VLAN database
B. DHCP snooping database
C. spanning trees
D. routing information

Answer: C

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QUESTION 211
Which option is the minimum number of bindings that the DHCP snooping database can store?

A. 1000 bindings
B. 2000 bindings
C. 5000 bindings
D. 8000 bindings

Answer: D

QUESTION 212
On which layer does IP source guard provide filtering to prevent a malicious host from
impersonating the IP address of a legitimate host?

A. Layer 1
B. Layer 2
C. Layer 3
D. Layer 7

Answer: B

QUESTION 213
By default, what is the state of port security on a switch?

A. disabled
B. on
C. off
D. learning

Answer: A

QUESTION 214
Which two statements about HSRP, GLBP, and VRRP are true? (Choose two.)

A. HSRP is the preferred protocol to be used on multivendor environments.
B. VRRP has one master router, one standby router, and many listening routers.
C. GLBP allows for a maximum of four MAC addresses per group.
D. HSRP supports up to 255 groups on the same switch or router.
E. VRRP is a Cisco proprietary protocol.

Answer: CD

QUESTION 215
Refer to the exhibit. Which option is the most likely explanation of the duplicate address message
logged?

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A. spanning-tree loop
B. HSRP misconfiguration
C. a PC with IP of 10.10.1.1
D. a hardware problem

Answer: B

QUESTION 216
Drag and Drop Question
Drag and drop the characteristic from the left to the matching Layer 2 protocol on the right.

Answer:

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QUESTION 217
Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer changes the default native VLAN to VLAN 999. After
applying the settings on the uplinks to the core switches, the switch control traffic, such as CDP
and VTP, is no longer working. The standard configuration is used for each uplink.
What is wrong with the configuration?

A. The interface is administratively down.
B. The encapsulation type is incorrect.
C. The switchport mode trunk command should be first in the output.
D. The native VLAN is not present on the trunk.
E. The control traffic must be manually enabled on the new native VLAN.

Answer: D

QUESTION 218
Which two options are two results of using the command spanning-tree vlan 50 root primary
within a spanning-tree network under global configuration? (Choose two.)

A. Spanning tree determines the priority of the current root for VLAN 50 and reduces the priority of
the local switch to a lower value.
B. The priority value for VLAN 50 is set to 4094 on the root while the local switch priority is set to
32768.

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C. The spanning-tree timers are reduced to improve the convergence time for VLAN 50.
D. All ports that are configured on the current switch with VLAN 50 transition to designated ports.
E. The switchport that is configured for VLAN 50 is the primary connection to the spanning-tree root
switch.

Answer: AD

QUESTION 219
An access switch at a remote location is connected to the spanning-tree root with redundant
uplinks. A network engineer notices that there are issues with the physical cabling of the current
root port. The engineer decides to force the secondary link to be the desired forwarding root port.
Which action accomplishes this task?

A. Change the link-type to point-to-point.
B. Enable Rapid Spanning Tree to converge using the secondary link.
C. Adjust the secondary link to have a lower priority than the primary link.
D. Apply a BPDU filter on the primary interface of the remote switches.

Answer: C

QUESTION 220
A network engineer wants to make sure that an access switch will never become a Spanning
Tree root for VLAN 5. What action will accomplish this task?

A. adjust STP priority to the maximum value
B. disable STP globally
C. apply root guard to all outgoing neighbor interfaces
D. enable MSTP and use a different revision number than all other switches

Answer: A

QUESTION 221
What action should a network administrator take to enable VTP pruning on an entire
management domain?

A. Enable VTP pruning on any client switch in the domain.
B. Enable VTP pruning on every switch in the domain.
C. Enable VTP pruning on any switch in the management domain.
D. Enable VTP pruning on a VTP server in the management domain.

Answer: D

QUESTION 222
Refer to the exhibit. BPDUGuard is enabled on both ports of SwitchA. Initially, LinkA is connected
and forwarding traffic. A new LinkB is then attached between SwitchA and HubA. Which two
statements about the possible result of attaching the second link are true? (Choose two.)

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A. The switch port attached to LinkB does not transition to up.
B. One or both of the two switch ports attached to the hub goes into the err-disabled state when a
BPDU is received.
C. Both switch ports attached to the hub transitions to the blocking state.
D. A heavy traffic load could cause BPDU transmissions to be blocked and leave a switching loop.
E. The switch port attached to LinkA immediately transitions to the blocking state.

Answer: BD

QUESTION 223
What is the effect of configuring the following command on a switch?

Switch(config) # spanning-tree portfast bpdufilter default

A. If BPDUs are received by a port configured for PortFast, then PortFast is disabled and the BPDUs
are processed normally.
B. If BPDUs are received by a port configured for PortFast, they are ignored and none are sent.
C. If BPDUs are received by a port configured for PortFast, the port transitions to the forwarding
state.
D. The command enables BPDU filtering on all ports regardless of whether they are configured for
BPDU filtering at the interface level.

Answer: A

QUESTION 224
Which protocol will enable a group of routers to form a single virtual router and will use the real IP
address of a router as the gateway address?

A. Proxy ARP
B. HSRP
C. IRDP
D. VRRP
E. GLBP

Answer: D

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QUESTION 225
Which two statements are true about recommended practices that are to be used in a local VLAN
solution design where layer 2 traffic is to be kept to a minimum? (Choose two.)

A. Routing should occur at the access layer if voice VLANs are utilized. Otherwise, routing should
occur at the distribution layer.
B. Routing may be performed at all layers but is most commonly done at the core and distribution
layers.
C. Routing should not be performed between VLANs located on separate switches.
D. VLANs should be local to a switch.
E. VLANs should be localized to a single switch unless voice VLANs are being utilized.

Answer: BD

QUESTION 226
What two things occur when an RSTP edge port receives a BPDU? (Choose two.)

A. The port immediately transitions to the forwarding state.
B. The switch generates a Topology Change Notification BPDU.
C. The port immediately transitions to the err-disable state.
D. The port becomes a normal STP switch port.

Answer: BD

QUESTION 227
How does VTP pruning enhance network bandwidth?

A. by restricting unicast traffic across VTP domains
B. by reducing unnecessary flooding of traffic to inactive VLANs
C. by limiting the spreading of VLAN information
D. by disabling periodic VTP updates

Answer: B

QUESTION 228
In the hardware address 0000.0c07.ac0a, what does 07.ac represent?

A. vendor code
B. HSRP group number
C. HSRP router number
D. HSRP well-known physical MAC address
E. HSRP well-known virtual MAC address

Answer: E

QUESTION 229
Which statement is true about RSTP topology changes?

A. Any change in the state of the port generates a TC BPDU.

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B. Only nonedge ports moving to the forwarding state generate a TC BPDU.
C. If either an edge port or a nonedge port moves to a block state, then a TC BPDU is generated.
D. Only edge ports moving to the blocking state generate a TC BPDU.
E. Any loss of connectivity generates a TC BPDU.

Answer: B

QUESTION 230
Refer to the exhibit. Based on the debug output, which three statements about HSRP are true?
(Choose three.)

A. The final active router is the router with IP address 172.16.11.111.
B. The router with IP address 172.16.11.111 has preempt configured.
C. The priority of the router with IP address 172.16.11.112 is preferred over the router with IP
address 172.16.11.111.
D. The IP address 172.16.11.115 is the virtual HSRP IP address.
E. The router with IP address 172.16.11.112 has nonpreempt configured.
F. The router with IP address 172.16.11.112 is using default HSRP priority.

Answer: ABD

QUESTION 231
What is the maximum number of switches that can be stacked using Cisco StackWise?

A. 4
B. 5
C. 8
D. 9
E. 10
F. 13

Answer: D
Explanation:
Up to 9 Cisco Catalyst switches can be stacked together to build single logical StackWise switch
since Cisco IOS XE Release 3.3.0SE. Prior to Cisco IOS XE
Release3.3.0SE, up to 4 Cisco Catalyst switches could be stacked together.
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/switches/catalyst-3850-series-switches/qa_c67-
722110.html

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QUESTION 232
A network engineer wants to add a new switch to an existing switch stack. Which configuration
must be added to the new switch before it can be added to the switch stack?

A. No configuration must be added.
B. stack ID
C. IP address
D. VLAN information
E. VTP information

Answer: A
Explanation:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/lan/catalyst3750x_3560x/software/release/12-
2_55_se/ configuration/guide/3750xscg/swstack.html

QUESTION 233
Which two statements about SPAN source and destination ports during an active session are
true? (Choose two.)

A. The source port can be only an Ethernet physical port.
B. The source port can be monitored in multiple SPAN sessions.
C. The destination port can be destination in multiple SPAN sessions.
D. The destination port does not participate in STP.
E. You can mix individual source ports and source VLANs within a single session.

Answer: BD

QUESTION 234
In a switch stack environment, what is the total bidirectional traffic flow between two logical
counter-rotating paths?

A. 16 Gbps
B. 32 Gbps
C. 64 Gbps
D. 128 Gbps

Answer: B

QUESTION 235
A network engineer configures port security and 802.1x on the same interface. Which option
describes what this configuration allows?

A. It allows port security to secure the MAC address that 802.1x authenticates.
B. It allows port security to secure the IP address that 802.1x authenticates.
C. It allows 802.1x to secure the MAC address that port security authenticates.
D. It allows 802.1x to secure the IP address that port security authenticates.

Answer: A

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Explanation:
802.1X and Port Security You can configure port security and 802.1X on the same interfaces.
Port security secures the MAC addresses that 802.1X authenticates. 802.1X processes packets
before port security processes them, so when you enable both on an interface, 802.1X is already
preventing inbound traffic on the interface from unknown MAC addresses.
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/sw/4_1/nx-
os/security/configuration/guide/sec_nx-os-cfg/sec_portsec.html

QUESTION 236
Which feature describes MAC addresses that are dynamically learned or manually configured,
stored in the address table, and added to the running configuration?

A. sticky
B. dynamic
C. static
D. secure

Answer: A
Explanation:
With port security, you can configure MAC addresses to be sticky. These can be dynamically
learned or manually configured, stored in the address table, and added to the running
configuration. If these addresses are saved in the configuration file, the interface does not need to
dynamically relearn them when the switch restarts. Although sticky secure addresses can be
manually configured, it is not recommended.
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/lan/catalyst4500/12-
2/25ew/configuration/guide/conf/port_sec.pdf

QUESTION 237
What is the default amount by which the hot standby priority for the router is decremented or
incremented when the interface goes down or comes back up?

A. 1
B. 5
C. 10
D. 15

Answer: C
Explanation:
The standby track interface configuration command ties the router hot standby priority to the
availability of its interfaces and is useful for tracking interfaces that are not configured for HSRP.
When a tracked interface fails, the hot standby priority on the device on which tracking has been
configured decreases by 10. If an interface is not tracked, its state changes do not affect the hot
standby priority of the configured device. For each interface configured for hot standby, you can
configure a separate list of interfaces to be tracked.
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/switches/lan/catalyst3550/software/release/12.1_19_ea1/config
uration/guide/swhsrp.html

QUESTION 238
What is the maximum number of virtual MAC addresses that GLBP allows per group?

A. 2

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B. 4
C. 6
D. 8

Answer: B
Explanation:
GLBP Virtual MAC Address Assignment
A GLBP group allows up to four virtual MAC addresses per group. The AVG is responsible for
assigning the virtual MAC addresses to each member of the group.
Other group members request a virtual MAC address after they discover the AVG through hello
messages.
Gateways are assigned the next MAC address in sequence. A virtual forwarder that is assigned a
virtual MAC address by the AVG is known as a primary virtual forwarder. Other members of the
GLBP group learn the virtual MAC addresses from hello messages. A virtual forwarder that has
learned the virtual MAC address is referred to as a secondary virtual forwarder.
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/ios/12_2t/12_2t15/feature/guide/ft_glbp.html#wp1039651

QUESTION 239
Which option is a benefit of using VSS?

A. reduces cost
B. simplifies configuration
C. provides two independent supervisors with two different control planes
D. removes the need for a First Hop Redundancy Protocol

Answer: D
Explanation:
First Hop Redundancy Protocols (FHRPs) such as VRRP and HSRP were designed to allow for a
highly available first IP route hop for host systems.
FHRPs allow two (or more) distinct routers to share a common IP address providing a redundant
Layer-3 default gateway for end nodes. The VSS system creates a single logical router at Layer
3. This VSS routing instance fulfills this first-hop role without the need for a dedicated protocol.
The VSS IP route is highly available due to MEC and the resiliency of the VSS system. VSS
eliminates the need for FHRP at the aggregation layer of the data center.
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/solutions/Enterprise/Data_Center/vssdc_integrate.html

QUESTION 240
Which statement about restrictions for multichassis LACP is true?

A. It is available only on a Cisco Catalyst 6500 Series chassis.
B. It does not support 1Gb links.
C. Converting a port channel to mLACP can cause a service disruption.
D. It is not available in VSS.

Answer: C
Explanation:
When configuring mLACP for Server Access, follow these guidelines and restrictions:
PFC3A mode does not support the mLACP for server access feature.
VSS mode does not support the mLACP for server access feature.
No more than 100 VLANs can be active on a switch configured as a PoA.

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mLACP does not support half-duplex links.
mLACP does not support multiple neighbors.
Converting a port channel to mLACP can cause a service disruption.
The DHD system priority must be lower (higher numerically) than the PoA system priority.
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/switches/lan/catalyst6500/ios/12.2SX/configuration/guide/mlac
p_server_support.html

QUESTION 241
What is the default value for the errdisable recovery interval in a Cisco switch?

A. 30 seconds
B. 100 seconds
C. 300 seconds
D. 600 seconds

Answer: C
Explanation:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk389/tk621/technologies_tech_note09186a00806cd87b.shtml

QUESTION 242
Which statement about LLDP-MED is true?

A. LLDP-MED is an extension to LLDP that operates between endpoint devices and network
devices.
B. LLDP-MED is an extension to LLDP that operates only between network devices.
C. LLDP-MED is an extension to LLDP that operates only between endpoint devices.
D. LLDP-MED is an extension to LLDP that operates between routers that run BGP.

Answer: A
Explanation:
LLDP for Media Endpoint Devices (LLDP-MED) is an extension to LLDP that operates between
endpoint devices such as IP phones and network devices such as switches. It specifically
provides support for voice over IP (VoIP) applications and provides additional TLVs for
capabilities discovery, network policy, Power over Ethernet, and inventory management.

QUESTION 243
A switch has been configured with the vlan dot1q tag native command.
Which statement describes what the switch does with untagged frames that it receive?

A. Untagged frames are forwarded via the default VLAN
B. It drops the untagged frames
C. The trunked port is put in err-disable state
D. Untagged frames are forwarded via the native VLAN

Answer: D

QUESTION 244
What condition was match during etherchannel configuration.

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A. Spanning tree port priority
B. Spanning tree cost
C. Interface Description
D. Trunk mode
E. Trunk allow vlan

Answer: DE

QUESTION 245
In a switch stack where is the the SDM template stored?

A. All switches in stack
B. Master switch
C. Flash memory

Answer: B

QUESTION 246
Refer to exhibit, which two statements correctly indicate when an SNMP trap is set to the switch?
(Choose two)

Switch(config)# snamp-server enable traps mac-notifcation
Switch(config)# mac address-table notification threshold
Switch(config)# mac address-table notification threshold limit 60
Switch(config)# mac address-table notification mac-move

A. When a new workstation connects to port F0/1
B. When 61 MAC address are in the switch
C. When 61 percent of the Address table capacity is used
D. When the switch loses power and reboots
E. When the phone previously on Fa0/2 is now connect to Fa0/5

Answer: CE

QUESTION 247
What is the default port security violation

A. log
B. shutdown
C. no change
D. error-disable

Answer: B

QUESTION 248
What is the command for configuring root guard?

A. (config) spanning-tree guard root
B. (config-if) spanning-tree guard root

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Answer: B

QUESTION 249
Network engineer want to use UDLD, what he need to consider?

A. udld is a non-propriety
B. udld is working with non cisco devices
C. udld is layer 1
D. udld can aggressively disabled the port after eight failed retries

Answer: D

QUESTION 250
What happens if an interface within channel group is configure as SPAN destination?

A. portchannel will forward traffic to source span
B. will not be operational
C. the link will be in error-disable

Answer: B

QUESTION 251
What is cisco recommendation for RSPAN best practice?

A. you should configure remote vlan first
B. use different vlan for multiple/different switches
C. use different portchannel

Answer: A

QUESTION 252
What is needed for Virtual Switching System "VSS"?

A. portchannel
B. trunk
C. Virtual Switching Link "or VSL"

Answer: C

QUESTION 253
Which will identify the master switch in stack wise?

A. lower priority
B. higher priority
C. lower id
D. higher id

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Answer: B

QUESTION 254
What happens if you apply this command "vlan dot1q tag native" ?

A. packet will be dropped
B. packet go to defautl vlan
C. packet go to native vlan

Answer: C

QUESTION 255
A Switch has been configured with the Vlan dot1q tag native command.
Which statement describes what the switch does with untagged frames that it receives on a
trunked interface

A. Untagged frames are forwarded via the default VLAN
B. it drops the untagged frames
C. The trunked port is put in err-disabled state
D. Untagged frames are forwarded via the native VLAN

Answer: D

QUESTION 256
An engineer is configuring an EtherChannel between two switches using PAgP If the
EtherChannel mode on switch 1 is configured to auto, which modes on switch 2 establish an
operational EtherChannel?

A. active
B. auto
C. desirable
D. on
E. passive

Answer: C

QUESTION 257
switch#show standby
Virtual IP address is X.X.X.X
Hello time 3 sec, hold time 10 sec
Preemption disabled
Active router is X.X.X.3 priority 85
Standby router is local
Priority 90 (configured 90)
Track interface faX/X state decrement 10

(Choose two)

A. The link will take over when .....
B. X.X.X.3 is active becuse it has higher IP address

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C. when faX/x is down praiority will be 80
D. it is using default hello and hold values

Answer: CD

QUESTION 258
Question about trunk configuration
int faX/X
switchport trunk allowed vlan x,x,x,x
switchport mode trunk
exit
show vlan
VLAN Name Status Ports
--- --------------------?------ ---------------------
1 default active Fa0/1, Fa0/3, Fa0/3, FaX/X
show interface trunk
(no output)

A. link is shutdown
B. interface needs no shutdown
C. other side is configured as access port
D. missing switchport command

Answer: A

QUESTION 259
What happens spoofed packet or something like untrusted packet is detected? (Choose three)

A. log
B. deletes
C. intercepts
D. accepts
E. discad

Answer: ACE

QUESTION 260
Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is configuring an etherchannel between two switches, he notices
the error message on Switch 2 (error message channel-missconfiguring error), based on the
output what is the problem?

A. the etherchannel on the switch 1 using incorrect member port
B. the etherchannel interface of switch 1 is not configured
C. the etherchannel protocol on switch 1 is not correct
D. the etherchannel interface of switch 2 is not configured

Answer: C

QUESTION 261

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Drag and Drop Question

A. See the exhibit

Answer: A

QUESTION 262
Drag and Drop Question

A. See the exhibit

Answer: A

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